SS3 MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS

MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3 – edudelight.org

***SS3* ENGLISH LANGUAGE MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE PAPER 1 CLASS: S.S 3

TIME: 1 ½ HRS

SECTION A: ESSAY

ESSAY PAPER 1

Answer one question from this session. You are advised to spend 50 minutes

The state of facilities and equipment in your school has gone very bad and it has adversely affected learning .As senior prefect ,write a letter to the chairman of the Old Student Association of your school explaining the condition of things to him and how it has affected academics and co-corricular activities .Also ,request that the old student come to your assistance.

2.Write a letter to the commissioner of education intimating him of the havoc done by unsupervised sports activities and how the situation can be rectified

3.Write an article suitable for publication on ways of getting youths interested in facing their studies in school so that they can achieved academic excellence.

4.You are a speaker in a debate on the topic ;The adults are to blame for the indecent behaviour of the youths. Write your contribution for or against the proposition.

5.Write a story that ends with ,So you see it does not pay to be dishonest.

SUMMARY

Answer All the questions in this section. You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

A recent noticeable trend in the education sector is the high rate of failure by candidates in public examinations. Why do students fail? This is a question that has been a source of worry, anxiety and concern to all stakeholders in the education of the young ones ¬¬– government, teachers, educationists, parents and so on.

The factors responsible for the failure of candidates in examinations are many and varied.

Let us consider the students themselves. Many of the students do not really take their students seriously. Instead of facing their studies, they prefer watching videos, playing games and lazing about. They engage themselves in many activities which are detrimental to their progress. They thus fail to prepare for their examinations. You remember the saying? – ‘To fail to prepare is to prepare to fail’- or what miracle does one expect to happen when an unserious student sits for an examination?

Teachers have a lion’s share of the blame. Majority of the teachers are no longer devoted or dedicated or committed to their jobs. Some of them skip lessons. Some of them have some other private businesses which they pay greater attention to. Many of them are not even bothered whether or not their students do well and yet they spend more time agitating for more pay. The devotion, the dedication and the commitment associated with teaching in the days of old are almost gone.

The quality of many teachers nowadays is nothing to write home about. Many of them have a haphazard or smattering knowledge of the subject matter or topic they teach. In some cases it is just like the blind leading the blind. Unfortunately, many of them are too lazy to read about the subject matter they teach. The result is that little or no learning takes place after the teacher has taught.

Parents too are to blame. Many parents fail to cater for the needs of their children. Many of them do not provide textbooks and other educational materials for their wards. Their priority is not the education of their children. Whilst many of them can, and do spend colossal amounts of money on frivolities e.g burying their dead relations or ‘turning the side’ of their long forgotten dead parents, they fail to provide essential educational materials for their wards. One wonders how a child can perform well without good textbooks and instructional materials.

The society itself contributes much to the failure of students in examinations through its wrapped value system. The society places much emphasis on money and what money can buy. Anyone who acquires wealth through whatever means- fair means, foul means, any means at all – is made an object of worship. Since the child has observed that money is regarded as the all in all, he doesn’t see the need to receive education. His main concern is how to acquire money. His mind is far away from the classroom environment. The societal value system thus serves as a disincentive to education.

Another contributory factor is the loss of the reading culture. In the olden days, every student had to read at least a novel a term. The result was that spoke and wrote good English. In addition, students read their textbooks and relevant books from cover to cover. Nowadays, even the recommended texts are not read. Similarly, many teachers themselves hardly read anything extra apart from the textbooks which the use in preparing their notes of lessons.

If the situation is to change therefore, everybody must be involved in a new reorientation.

In six sentences, one for each, state the factors responsible for the high rate of failure of students in public examinations according to the writer.

SECTION B: COMPREHENSION

Answer all the questions in this section. You are advised to spend about 50 minutes on this section.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.

He bid me observe it, and I should always find that the calamities of life were shared among the upper and lower parts of mankind, but that the middle station had the fewer disasters, and was not exposed to so many vicissitudes as the higher or lower parts of mankind. No, they were not subjected to so many distempters and uneasinesses either of body or mind. This is unlike those who, by vicious living, luxury and extravagances on one hand, or by hard labor, want of necessaries, and mean or insufficient diet on the other hand, bring distempers upon themselves by the natural consequences of their way of living. It is said that the middle station of life was calculated for all kinds of virtues and all kinds of enjoyment, that peace and plenty were the handmaids of a middle fortune. It is also believed that temperance, moderation, quietness and health were blessings attending the middle station of life. In this way men went silently and smoothly through the world, and comfortably out of it, not sold to the life of slavery for daily bread, or harassed with perplexed circumstances, which rob the soul of peace, and the body of rest; not enraged with the passion of envy, or secret burning lust of ambition for great things; but in easy circumstances sliding gently through the world, and sensibly tasting the sweets of living.

After this, he pressed me earnestly, and in most affectionate manner, not to play the young man, not to precipitate myself into miseries which Nature and the station of life I was born in seemed to have provided against. He also told me I was under no necessity of seeking my bread. He assured me that he would do well for me; and that if I was not very easy and happy in the world it must be my mere fate of fault that must hinder it. He further told me that he should have nothing to answer for; having thus discharged his duty in warning me against measures which he knew would be to my hurt.

QUESTIONS

(A) Into how many classes, according to the writer, is society divided and how do you identify each class?

(B) What are the characteristics of the lower class which the writer mentions first?

(D) Into what type of life has the person being addressed in passage been born and what type of life is the writer recommending to him?

(E) Why did the writer say that he would have nothing to answer for?

(F) ‘… peace and plenty were the handmaids of a middle fortune.’

What figure of speech is used in the above expression?

(G) ‘… that the calamities of life were shared among the upper and lower parts of mankind …’

(i) What grammatical name is given to the above expression as used in the passage?

(ii) What is its function?

(H) For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and can replace it as it is used in the passage.

(i) calamities

(ii) necessaries

(iii) consequences

(iv) calculated

(v) affectionate

(vi) discharged

SS3 MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE PAPER 2 CLASS: S.S 3

TIME: 1HR

OBJECTIVE TEST: Answer all questions

SECTION 1

In each of the following sentences there is one word or group of words underlined and one gap. From the list of words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word or group of words and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence.

A. The ignorant miner found a priceless diamond but thought that it was an ___________ material. A. Worthless B. Valuable C. Durable D. Costly

1. Some people delight in provoking aggrieved persons instead of ____________ them.

A. Discouraging B. Praising C. Pacifying D. Encouraging

2. One of the amazing things of nature is that while in some areas there is a surplus of commodities in other areas there is ______

A. Scarcity B. Plenty C. Much D. None

3. Whilst Mero’s husband is extravagant she is quite ______________

A. Miserly B. Frugal C. Wasteful D. Considerate

4. The students expected that the committee would recommend severe punishment for the offenders but insteadS it recommend a _____________ one.

A. Strict B. Great C. Painful D. Mild

5. Pride is a quality that we should avoid but ____________ is one that should be imbided.

A. Humility B. Arrogance C. Pomposity D. Gentleness

6. A good leader must not always be rigid he should be ____________ so as to take into account human frailty. A. soft B. twisted C. flexible D. Gentile

7. They will need to __________ all those dilapidated houses first if they are going to erect a new five star hotel there. A.Burn B. buy C. remove D. demolish

8. The girl frequently has severe headaches, though she ____________ complains.

A. Often B. Seldom C. Recently D. Gently

9. It is often said that attack is the best means of ____________.

A. Defence B.Fighting C. War D. Diplomacy

SECTION 2

From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.

10. After their meeting the two presidents issued a ______________.

A. Communique B. Memorandum C. Report D. Statement

11. The preliminary ______________ conducted by the police into the incident revealed that the death of the victim was result of provocation.

A. Interrogation B. Examination C. Report D. Investigation

12. The unfavorable economic climate has forced many people to ___________ to seek for green pastures. A. Fly B. immigrate C. Emigrate D. travel

13. The package is ____________ please handle it with care.

A. Weak B. Fragile C. Infirm D. Frail

14. Many people are now going against ___________ punishment for criminal offences.

A. Mortal B. Fatal C. Capital D. Corporal

15. I trust my father, he will never ____________ act of indiscipline.

A. Condone B. Condemn C. Repudiate D. Discourage

16. The members of staff pledge their ____________ loyalty to the new principal.

A. United B. Divided C. Unalloyed D. Enormous

17. There was an interruption of the court ___________ because of power outage.

A. Procession B. Debates C. Deliberation D. Proceedings

18. The minister was sacked for gross ____________ of duty.

A. Performance B. Dereliction C. Laziness D. Dishonesty

19. The kidnappers demanded a ___________ of two million naira before they could release the child of the influential government official.

A. Ransom B. Token C. Settlement D. Deposit

SECTION 3

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

20. Those who are born with silver spoons in their mouths do not run into any financial problems. This means that those

A. Who have silver spoons in their mouths at birth do not run into financial problems

B. Who brought silver spoon from heaven do not run into financial problems

C. Who are born into affluence do not run into financial problems

D. Who are born with a set of silver teeth in their mouths do not run into financial problems.

21. The man gave his son a free hand to run his business. This means the man

A. Assisted the boy freely.

B. Made his son the sole owner of the business

C. Allowed his son to make his own decision

D. Untied his son’s hand to run the business.

22. Just as she was at the brink of taking the crucial decision she developed cold feet. This means that

A. She lost interest B.Her feet suddenly became cold C. She caught cold from the feet

D. She became afraid.

A. The Professor of Medicine had made his mark before he died. This means that the Professor had A. Scored high mark B. Become quite rich C. Stressed his points

D. Distinguished himself.

23. The General Manager of the company started on the wrong foot by listening to sycophants. This means the General Manager

A. Started with a painful foot B. Made an initial mistake C. Started well at the beginning

D. Was not fit for the post.

24. She’d been wanting to see him for ages. This means that she had been wanting to see him

A. For almost an era B. Because of their ages C.In order to find out how old he was

D. For a long time.

25. They decided to call it a day. This means they decided that

A. They had done enough work for the time being B.It was a special day C. The best name for it was ‘day’ D. It was evening

26. The garrulous lady can talk the hind leg off a donkey. This means that she

A. Knows how to talk to donkey B. Talks complete nonsense C.Talks too much D. Can persuade anyone to believe anything.

27. The lady supported her husband through thick and thin. This means that the lady supported her husband

A. When he was well and when he was ill B. In both good and bad circumstances C. Whether he was behaving badly or well D. When he was fat and when he lost weight

28. The tragedy that befell her put paid to all her plans. This means that the tragedy that befell her

A. Forced her to pay some money B. Provided a receipt for her plans C. Made possible the achievement of her plans D. Prevented her from carrying out her plans.

SECTION 4

From the group of words lettered A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word or group of words as it is used in the sentence.

29. Politicians should not make damaging remarks about their opponents.

A. Sensitive B. Mild C. Harsh D. Scathing

30. The teacher refused to comment on the principal’s uncomplimentary speech.

A. Declined B.Rejected C.Inclined D. Descended

31. In the present situation the President is powerless.

A. Incompetent B.Impotent C. Incapable D. Inefficacious

32. There was an abundance of food on the table during the birthday ceremony.

A. A basket B.A shortage C. A great deal D.A heap

33. The crowd, being intimidated by the soldiers, stood silent and afraid.

A. Questioned B.Frightened C. Attacked D.Informed

34. For all men, death is inevitable. A. Unavoidable B. irresistible C. compulsory D. inexplorable

35. It has never been my lot to have a garden. A. fate B. ambition C. objective D. luck

36. I don’t think that anything he does will affect the result.

A. Effect B. Improve C. Influence D. Reverse

37. I don’t engage in shady businesses. A. unknown B. shadowy C. unrevealed D. dishonest

38. Some politicians engage in clandestine meetings. A. secret B. unknown C. important D. sudden

SECTION 5

From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes each of the following sentences.

39. A loyal citizen ought not to abstain _______ voting. A. In B. against C. from D. by

40. She set _________ preparing lunch when I came. A. On B. at C. about D. for

41. The ____________ engineer designed a new machine.

A. Brilliant Nigerian young B.Nigerian brilliant young C.Young Nigerian brilliant D. Brilliant young Nigerian

42. ______________ were asked to represent the school at the quiz competition.

A. I and Ngosi B. Ngosi and me C. Ngosi and I D. Myself and Ngosi

43. I am not going to the stadium with you as I ___________ that team play before.

A. Am seeing B. Have seen C. Had seen D. Was seeing

44. I won’t be able to come to the party as the day’s work has tired me _________________.

A. Through B.Down C. Out D. on

45. It’s been rough so far, ______________? A. Hasn’t it B. Hadn’t it C. Isn’t it D. wasn’t it

46. The suspect ______________ when I entered the office.

A. Has been questioned B. Have been questioned C. Was being questioned D.Is being questioned

47. Ada had only ______________ time to spend with her family before the plane took off.

A. A little B. Some C. Little D. small

B. Small

48. The calculations looked ________________ simple that he thought would not get any of them wrong. A. very B. quite C. so D. much

49. The story she was reading made her ________________.

A. Laughed B.To laugh C. Laugh D. Laughing

50. _____________ people turned out for the rally because of the poor publicity.

A. Few B. Quite a few C. Only fewer D.A few

51. The two brothers fell out and refused to live ____________ the same roof.

A. Inside B. Beneath C. In D. under

52. The teacher asked, ‘_____________ will have the courage to try and lift that heavy log?’

A. Whom B. Which C. Who D. Whomever

53. My friend and I quarreled last week and haven’t ________________ yet.

A. Made it out B. Made up C. Made out D. Made it up

54. After two years of courtship, Jide is _____________ Nkechi next Sunday.

A. Getting married to B. Marrying C. To marry to D. Being married by

55. The visitor was very uncomfortable because of his ______________ noise.

A. Runny B. Watery C. Flowing D. Running

56. My friend’s car has ________________ to a halt.

A. Grinded B. Grounded C. Ground D. Grind

57. It’s time we _________________ for the party. A. leave B. left C. are leaving D. will leave

58. Bassey was _________________ by the girl’s story.

A. Taken away B. Taken on C. Taken in D. Taken up

59. ______________, you should put in some effort to show that you are interested.

A. However you are tired B. However tired you are C. However tired are you

D. However are you tired

60. _____________ ride a bicycle but he also drives a car.

A. He not only does B. Not only he does C. He only does not D. Not only does he

61. Our plans for the trip fell ______________ because we had no money.

A. Down B. Through C. Off D. Out

62. My brother ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬_______________ studying in England for two years now.

A. Is B. Has been C. Was D. Had been

63. I am not going to the cinema tonight, neither _____________ you.

A. Would B. Are C. Do D. Have

64. No sooner had we started the journey __________________ we had a flat tyre.

A. Then B. That C. When D.Than

65. In this letter there __________________ good news about your elder brother.

A. Is some B. Are C.Is a D. Are some

66. There were men on the job day and night all the time that this hostel ______________.

A. Was building B.Was being built C. Was built D. Is being built

67. I shall have to start work _______________ I can after leaving school.

A. So soon as B. As soon C. So soon that D. As soon as

68. Mary and Jane are always fighting _____________.

A. Each other B. Themselves C. Another D. The other

69. Whilst Mero’s husband is extravagant she is quite _____ (a) miserly (b) plenty (c) wasteful (d) consider

70. It is often said that attack is the best means of _______ (a) defence (b) fighting (c) war (d) displomacy

SECTION 6

In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in list below each passage, four options are offered in columns lettered A to D. Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gap in the passage.

Passage

Oil is perhaps the most sought after of all natural resources. However, a major difficulty in its research is that oil mines are very often found below the sea shore. As a result, the search for oil is very expensive, and unless oil is found there in -71- quantities the companies or governments involved are liable to lose heavily. Therefore, before -72- starts, extensive surveys are carried out to see how much oil, or -73- gas the rock formation is likely to yield. If the results are favourable an oil rig is towed into position. The rig consists of a main -74- on which the men work and a derrick which supports the drill. This drill goes down thousands of feet until oil or a -75- of gas is reached. The next stage is to transport the gas or oil to the shore. In the case of gas, this is normally done by laying a -76- below the sea, but oil on reaching the top of the well is more often transported in its -77- state by -78-. On shore it is -79- into different fuels or it is treated chemically to turn it into a variety of -80- materials such as polythene.

A B C D

71. Unstable Saleable Commercial Practical

72. Mining Prospecting Drilling Digging

73. Natural Oceanic Flammable Household

74. Ramp Foundation Scaffold Platform

75. Pocket Marsh Balloon Stratum

76. Cable Tunnel Pipeline Channel

77. Raw Crude Liquid Impure

78. Tanker Boat Transporter Tug

79. Made Refined Produced Manufactured

80. Processed Industrial Artificial Synthetic

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE PAPER 3 CLASS: S.S 3

TIME: 1HR

TEST OF ORAL

(OBJECTIVE)

From the words lettered A to D, Choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined. An example is given below:

Example: seat A. sit B. cite C. set D. key.

The correct answer is D because only key contains the same vowel sound as the one underlined in seat. Therefore, answer space D would be shaded

(A) (B) (C) ~~(D)~~

Now answer the questions that follow:

sit A. guilt B. clique C. marine D. sardine
wed A. days B. says C. meal D. deal
card A. bat B. hat C. class D. glad
bought A. grouse B. loss C. worse D. horse.
who A. bulll B. wood C. rush D. lose.
serve A. harp B. come C. journey D. beg.
man A. dam B. basket C. parch D. park
bottle A. holy B. prowess C. grower D. modern.
cut A. butcher B. touch C. pouch D pull.
should A. push B. mould C. cousin D. gush.
great A. neighbour B. meat C. lead D. peasant.
boat A. comfort B. host C. golf D. mother.
boil A. mail B. sour C. coin D. mayor
fair A. sheer B. here C. heir D. fear.
ear A. chair B. wear C. cheer D. earnest SECTION B

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined. An example is given below.

Example: vice A. cat B. dress C. show D. chalk.

The correct answer is B because only dress has the same consonant sound as the one underlined in vice. Therefore answer space B would be shaded.

(A) ~~(B)~~ (C) (D)

Now answer the questions that follow.

16. huge A. bug B. fog C. hug D. joy

17. wanted A. reduce B. handsome C. sandwish D. handkerchief

18. match A. machine B. charade C. moustache D. chunk.

19. gas A. debris B. reverse C. island D. aisle

20. those A. thrive B. scathing C. worthless D. threat.

21. knife A. sink B. bank C. gnaw D. single

22. feather A. victor B. vendor C. physics D. brave.

23. face A. lose B. shoes C. tease D. rats

24. nation A. anxious B. decision C. explosion D. equation

25. cool A. ceiling B. architect C. attache D. brochure.

26. cause A. course B. sauce C. pores D. toss.

27. thread A. bath B. booth C. writhe D. northern.

28. flood. A. plead B. fillip C. burglar D. ruffle.

29. exact A. exceed B. excess C. exhaust D. excel.

30. conduct A. attached B. resist C. indict D. impact.

From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word. An example is given below.

Example: obtain A. detain B. detail C. claim D. relay.

The correct answer is A because only detain rhymes with obtain. Therefore, answer space A would be shaded.

~~(A)~~ (B) (C) (D)

Now answer the questions that follow.

31. clone A. crown B. lawn C. brown D. loan.

32. monk A. smack B. pluck C. sunk D. shock.

33. pride A. sprout B. kite C. spade D. wide.

34. hind A. void B. laud C. signed D. speed.

35. disdain A. convey B. curtain C. avail D. ordain.

SECTION D

In each of the following questions, the main/primary stress is indicated by writing the syllable on which it occurs in capital letters.

From the words lettered A to D, choose the one that has the correct stress. An example is given below.

Example: democratic

A. DE-mo-cra-tic B. de-mo-cra-tic C. de-mo-CRA-tic D. de-mo-cra-TIC.

The correct answer is C because the main/primary stress of the word democratic is on the third syllable. Therefore, answer space C would be shaded.

(A) (B) ~~(C)~~ (D)

Now answer the questions that follow.

36. indoctrinate A. IN-doc-tri-nate B. in-DOC-tri-nate C. in-duc-TRI -nate D. in-doc-tri-NATE

37. refinery A. RE-fin-e-ry B. re-FIN-e-ry C. re-fin-E-ry D. re-fin-e-RY.

38. phenomenal A. PHE-no-me-nal B. phe-NO-me-nal C. phe-no-ME-nal D. phe-no-me-NAL.

39. consistency A. CON-sis-ten-cy B. con-SIS-ten-cy C. con-sis-TEN-cy D. con-sis-ten-CY.

40. acrobatic A. AC-ro-ba-tic B. ac-RO-ba-tic C. ac-ro-BA-tic D. ac-ro-ba-TIC.

SECTION 5

In the following options lettered A to D, all the words except one have the same stress pattern. Identify the one with the different stress pattern and shade your answer in the usual way. An example is given below.

Example: A. away B. apart C. behind D. river.

Options A,B, C, are all stressed on the second syllable while the option D is the only one stressed on the first syllable. So D is the correct answer. Therefore, answer space D would be shaded.

(A) (B) (C) ~~(D)~~

Now answer the questions that follow.

41. A. pursue B. local C. river D. country

42. A. review B. surplus C. surprise D. concise.

43. A. cruel B. moral C. humane D. terror

44. A. profession B. proposal C. agreement D. resolute

45. A. condolence B. suspicion C. attachment D. personel.

SECTION 6

In each of the following sentences, the word that receives the emphatic stress is written in capital letters. From the questions lettered A-D. Choose the one to which the given sentence is the appropriate answer. An example is given below

Example: My mother’s FRIEND hates pets.

A. Does your mother’s boss hate pets? B. Does your mother’s friend love pets? C. Does your mother’s friend hate toys D. Does your father’s friend hate pets?

The correct answer is A because My mother’s FRIEND hates pets answers the question. Does your mother’s boss hate pets. Therefore, answer space A would be shaded.

~~(A)~~ (B) (C) (D)

Now answer the question that follow.

46. Tamuno bought his wife an expensive car

A. Did Musa buy his wife an expensive car?

B. Did Tamuno buy his daughter an expensive car?

C. Did Tamuno buy his wife a cheap car?

D. Did Tamuno buy his wife an expensive necklace?

47. Father REBUKED Kemi for being dishonest

A. Did Mother rebuke Kemin for honest

B. Did father rebuke praise Kemi for being dishonest

C. Did Father rebuke Tunde for being dishonest

D. Did Father rebuke Kemi for being honest?

48. Bola’s Mother is a very PATIENT teacher

A. Is Amina’s mother a very patient teacher?

B. Is Bola’s mother a barely patient teacher?

C. Is Bola’s mother a very impatient teacher?

D. Is Bola’s mother a very patient doctor?

49. Chinwe is usually HOSPITABLE to stranger

A. Is Ada usally hospitable to strangers

B. Is Chinwe seldom hospitable to strangers?

C. Is Chinwe usually hostile to strangers?

D. Is Chinwe usually hospitable to foes

***SS3* ECONOMICS MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: ECONOMICS TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS CLASS: S.S 3

INSTRUCTION: Answer five questions in all, one question from section A and any four questions from section B.

Note: You are reminded of the importance of clarity of expression and orderly presentation of relevant materials.

Note: All questions carry equal marks.

SECTION A (3 hours)

Answer one questions only from this section

The output and cost of production of rice (in bags) are presented in the table below. Use the information in the table to answer the questions that follow.

Output of rice (in bags)	1	2	3	4	5
Total variable cost (TVC) $	0	5	7	10	20
Total cost (TC) $	7	12	14	17	27

Calculate the
Average fixed cost (AFC) at the output levels 0,2 and 4
Marginal cost (MC) at all levels of output

If the price of a bag of rice were $10
Calculate the profit/loss at all levels of output
At what output level(s) is the maximum profit made ?
Draw the marginal cost curve (the use of graph sheet is essential)

The table below shows the scale of preference of a student – Mr. Smith whose disposable income is $7.00. use the information in the table to answer the questions that follows.

Items needed	Prices ($)
Textbooks Shirts Shoes Trousers Notebook School fees Mattress	5.00 2.00 3.00 3.00 1.00 7.00 10.00

(i) what will Mr. Smith spend his money on ?

(ii) Explain your answer in 2(a)(i).

(i) what is the opportunity cost of MR. Smith’s decision in 2(a)(i)

(ii) explain your answer in 2(a)(i)

(i) if Mr. Smith’s disposable income increases to $10.0 , what will he spend it on ?

(ii) what is the opportunity cost of the decision in 2(c)(i) ?

Define “scale of preference” and “opportunity cost”
What is the importance of a scale of preference ?

SECTION B

(a) what is :
Peasant farming
Commercial farming ?

(b) describe five ways in which agriculture contributes to the economic development of your country

(a) distinguish between small scale production and large scale production

(b) describe any five internal economics of large scale production

(a) explain any four benefits of industrial development in an economy

(b) outline any four measures that will encourage industrial growth in your country

(a) differentiatiate between direct and indirect taxation .

(b) highlight any five advantages of indirect taxation to developing countries.

7(a) Distinguish between location of industries and localization of economics (5 marks)

(b) Describe any three advantages and any two disadvantages of locating industries in rural areas (15 marks)

8(a) What is incidence of taxes? (4 marks)

(b) Explain any four principles of taxation (16 marks)

9(a) Explain the function of money as a (i) measure of value (5 marks) (ii) Store of value (5 marks)

(b) Show how inflation affects these two functions of money (10 marks)

10(a) What is commercial bank? (4 marks)

(b) Describe any four ways by which the central Bank controls the amount of credit given by the commercial bank.

(16 marks)

11. Explain any five objectives of the Economic Community of West Africa States (ECOWAS) (20 marks)

12(a) Outline any three problems of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) (12 marks)

(b) What remedies have been adopted to curtail any two of the problems?

(8 marks)

OBJECTIVE TEST (50 minutes)

1. Which of the following is an economic activity? A. Attending a town’s meeting

B. A visits to the stadium C. Payment of school fees D. Arresting a petty thief

2. The reward for land as a factor of production is A. Interest B. Rent C. Wages

D. Dividend

3. The three broad categories of production are A. Direct, secondary and extrusive

B. primary, tertiary, direct C. primary, secondary and tertiary

D. secondary, primary and indirect

4. A carpenter’s consumer goods include

1. a kilogram of rice II. 3 pairs of shoes III. 4 pairs of sacks IV. 3 screw – drivers

A. I and IV only B. I, II, III and IV C. I, II and IV only D. I, II and III only

5. In a capitalist system, the means of production are owned and controlled by

A. the government B. politician C. private individuals D. the workers

6. Mixed economy refers to a system in which the means of production are controlled by

A. private enterprise and the governments B. private individual C. The governments only

D. the workers and business man

7. An economic good is described as a good which A. yield utility and commands a price

B. is useful and occupies a space C. is in high demand and transferable

D. has unlimited supply

8. The concept of opportunity cost is important to the firm because it

A. determines the prices of the firm’s product B. increases the level of output of the firm

C. lead to maximum satisfaction of the consumers D. guides firms in allocating resources

9. As a firms expands, it enjoys some advantages called

A. variable proportions B. diminishing marginal returns C. internal economies of scale

D. decreasing of reforms to scale

10. Division of labour is limited by A. the size of the market B. the productivity of capital

C. cost of production D. the factors of production

11. An entrepreneur is likely to make more profits when

A. expenditure is more than revenue B. competition charge lower prices

C. cost per unit output falls D. quality of output reduces

12. Natural growth rate is A. birth rate less death rate B. death rate less migration

C. death rate plus birth rate D. birth rate plus migration

13. A major effect of ageing population is A. reduced labour force

B. rise in prices of commodities C. reduced infrastructure D. neglect of agriculture

14. One of the problems associated with the middle man in the distribution of goods is that he

A. buys in large quantities B. hoards good C. grants credit to the retailer

D. sells variation of goods

15. The distribution of goods is said to be completed when it reaches the

A. whole sellers B. consumer C. retailer D. manufacturer

16. The gap between demand and supply curves below the equilibrium price indicates

A. excess demand B. excess supply C. equilibrium quantity D. equilibrium price

17. Demand for inferior goods is an example of A. expansion of demand

B. contraction of demand C. individual demand D. abnormal demand

18. When a change in price does not affect the quantity demanded of a commodity, the price elasticity of demand is A. fairly in-elastic B. infinitely inelastic C. perfectly inelastic D. unitary elastic

Use the table below to answer questions 19 -21.

Price (dollars)	Quantity supplied in units
5	60
3	30

19. The percentage change in supply is A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50

20. The percentage change in price is in A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

21. The elasticity of supply is A. infinite B. equal to me C. less than one

D. equal to zero

22. Which of the following cost curve is not u-shaped? The (a)marginal cost curve (b)average fixed cost curve (c)average total cost curve (d)average variable cost curve

23. For both the monopolist and the perfectly competitive firm, profit maximizing output occurs as the point where the

A. marginal cost curve cuts the marginal revenue from below

B. marginal revenue curve cuts the marginal output from above

C. marginal cost curve intersects the X – axis

D. marginal revenue curve intersects the Y-axis

24. The market structure in which the operators are many and none of them can influence the price is A. imperfect market B. perfect market C. oligopolistic market

D. stock market

25. One main benefit of partnership is

A. the possibility of raising funds on the stock exchange B. the possibility of attracting twenty or more members C. that members can specializes in various functions

D. that it enjoys its own separate legal entity

26. Joint ventures are partnerships involving A. the poor and the rich B. employers and workers C. government an private investors D. multinationals and individuals

27. The value of money is best determined by A. input-output ratio B. the purchasing power

C. the importance people attach to it D. economies of scale

28. Which of the following will be an effect of inflation?

A. wage earners will gain B. borrowing of money will be restricted

C. money lenders will gain D. borrowers of money will gain

29. Government can control inflation by A. printing of more money

B. reducing the rate of taxes C. reducing the level of expenditure

D. establishing more banks

30. The market consist of a network of dealers where currencies can be bought and sold is known as

A. capital market B. foreign exchange market C. commodity market D. the stock market

31. Open market operation (OMO) means the

A. provision of credit facilities by commercial banks

B. provision of credit facilities by the mortgage banks

C. buying and selling of government securities by the central bank

D. procedure for the establishment of commercial bank

32. Which of the following is an advantage of localization of industry?

A. Development of subsidiary firm B. creation of parallel markets

C. development of slums D. attraction of foreign capital

33. Which of the following will ensure efficiency in the industrial sector of your country?

A. Indigenization B. Privatization C. Nationalization D. Liquidation

34. The number of people who are qualified to work and who offer themselves for employment are called A. Migrant labour B. Working population C. Labour turnover

D. Mobility labour

35. Given the formula for the national income multiplier as k = 1/1-MPC

MPC = 0.75, and an increase in government expenditure from N 20 billion to N 35 billion. Calculate the charge in the level of national income

A. N140 billion B. N 80 billion C. N 75 billion D. N 60 billion

36. The formula for calculating price index is

A. Current price x 100

Base year 1

B. Base year price x 100

Current price 1

C. current price x base year price

100

D. current price x 100

Weighed price 1

37. When the general price level persistently falls, the rate of unemployment

A. rises B. stagnates C. rapidly reduces D. equals natural growth rate

38. Taxes levied on commodities are A. direct taxes B. indirect taxes

C. poll taxes D. investment taxes

39. The act of selling goods in foreign markets of prices below those charged at home market is called A. exchange B. dumping C. specialization D. exporting

40. One disadvantage of direct taxes is that

A. governments revenue is reduced B. price of essential commodities fall

C. people are discouraged from additional work D. Firms make more profits

41. International trade is an application of the principle of

A. industrial production B. Mass production C. regional production

D. Comparative cost advantage

42. Trade among West Africa countries is poor because the

A. countries are self sufficient B. communication links are weak

C. number of banks is insufficient D. people are not enterprising

43. A policy by which government restrict the amount of foreign currencies bought and sold is known as A. devaluation B. credit control C. exchange control D. export promotion

44. Which of the following items is under the capital account of a balance of payments?

A. Repayment of foreign loans B. Visible imports C. Invisible exports D. Cocoa exports

45. Development planning which takes an overall view of the economy is describes as

A. Aggregate economic planning B. Disaggregate economic planning

C. sectorial economic planning D. system economic planning

46. The national income of a country can be estimated by the

A. cost-benefit method B. distribution method C. expenditure method D. consumption method

47. The difference between Gross Domestic Product (GNP) and Gross National product (GNP) is A. depreciation B. Domestic investment abroad C. Foreign investment at home

D. Net income from abroad

48. Which of the following is excluded when estimating national income?

A. dividends B. wages and salaries C. transfer payments D. Profits

49. The Economic community of West African states (ECOWAS) has been slow in achieving its objectives because of A. political instability in member state

B. the activities of multinationals C. inadequately personnel at the secretariat

D. inadequately international support

50. A major achievement of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting countries (OPEC) is that

A. crude oil price has increased tremendously

B. petroleum products prices have remained low.

***SS3* CRS MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: C.R.S TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS CLASS: S.S 3

Answer all objectives questions

One of the four rivers found in the garden of Eden was (a) Nile (b) Tigris (c) Abana (d) Jordan
Joseph was sold to the midianites by his brothers at (a) bethel (b) Gilead (c) Dothan (d) Shechem
The main reason why the Israelites went to Egypt was because (a) they needed divine protection (b) the Egyptians (b) the Egyptians had colonized them (c) Joseph was in charge of food (d) there was great famine
Moses’ Miracles among the Hebrews after his call were meant to (a) encourage rebellion against the Pharaoh (b) reveal Moses’ leadership capabilities (c) convince pharaoh of Yahweh’s supremacy (d) convince Israel of Yaweh’s mission
Aaron was chosen to assist Moses in liberating the Israelites because (a) Moses was a stammerer (b) God had lost confidence in Moses (c) the Israelites murmured against Moses’ leadership (d) Moses was old and would soon die.
The miraculous crossing of the Red sea by the Israelites shows (a) God’s guidance and protection over His people (b) the ill – equipped army of Pharaoh (c) God’s fulfillment of Hid Promises to destroy the Egyptians (d) Moses as a reliable leader.
To prove the land’s fertility, the spices brought from the valley of Eschol, (a) sycamore, figs and olives (b) pomegranates, citrus and vines (c) grapes figs and pomegranates (d) olives, grapes and sycamore
In the battle against Sisera, Deborah’s co – operation with Barak was based on her (a) belief in Barak’s power (b) absolute belief and trust in God, (c) reliance on a large army (d) power as a prophetess
The sons of Eli treated God’s sacrifices with contempt by (a) laying with women in the tent (b) being ignorant of the sacrificial laws. (c) taking raw meat before the fats were burnt (d) limiting themselves to the breast of the animal
Samuel’s disagreement with Saul was caused mainly by (a) hatred (b) disobedience (c) intolerance (d) arrogance
David’s respect and humility for the Lord’s anointed was depicted in (a) his refusal to kill Saul (b) returning Saul’s spear and Jar (c) giving Saul a decent Burial (d) the way Abner was humiliated
The consequence of Solomon’s apostasy was (a) the division of the Kingdom of Israel (b) Rehoboam’s inability to sustain and maintain the kingdom of Israel (c) the conspiracy against him by Jeroboam (d) the sudden death of his wives and concubines
Joshua’s reforms were influenced by (a) the demise of Assyrian Empire (b) Ahab’s disregard for the law (c) Assyria’s conquest of states (d) the discovery of the law book
Josiah defiled Topheth in order to prevent Jews from (a) sacrificing children to Molech (b) offering sacrifices to the god, chemosh (c) worshipping the Babylonian sun god (d) building the Asherah in Hinon
What are these feeble Jews doing?

Will they sacrifice? Sanballat made this statement to (a) scare the Jews (b) attack the Jews (c) ridicule the Jews (d) sanction the Jews

Nehemiah succeeded in building the walls of Jerusalem because (a) he defeated Sanballat and Tobiah (b) Artaxerxes sent troops to protect him (c) God’s hand was with the Jews (d) God sent plagues upon their enemies
Which Persian King allowed the Jews to go back to rebuild the temple? (a) Nebuchadnezzar (b) Cyrus (c) Darius (d) Artaxerxes
King Darius decreed that men should tremble and fear the God of Daniel because He (God) is the (a) Saving God (b) Living God (c) powerful God (d) loving God
That Daniel, who is one of the exiles form Juda[h, pays no heed to you, o King……. The King being addressed was (a) Nebuchadnezzar (b) Ashurbanipal (c) Cyrus (d) Darius
The book of Hosea is meant to illustrate God’s (a) universalism and love (b) Purity and providence (c) love and mercy (d) forgiveness and sovereignty
And when he came up out of the water, immediately he saw the heavens opened and the spirit descending upon him like a dove what was the significance of the descent of the dove? To (a) show that he was the messiah (b) empower him for his ministry (c) isolate him as a distinguished prophet (d) reveal him to the world.
In the temptation of Jesus, only Mark reported that Jesus was (a) angry with the devil (b) hungry and tired (c) with the wild beasts (d) victorious over the devil.
The part of the temple which was connected with Jesus’ temptation was the (a) Holy of Holies (b) Pinnacle (c) court of the Gentiles (d) sanctuary
And he saw two boats by the lake; but the fishermen had gone out of them and were washing their nets. The lake in question was (a) Gennesaret (b) Arabah (c) Jordan (d) Tiberias
The call of Matthew, the tax collector to be one of Jesus’ apostles implied that (a) tax collectors were sinless (b) Christ came to call sinners (c) Matthew was willing to repent (d) all tax collectors had repented
Simon peter was reluctant in obeying Jesus’ instruction to fish again because (a) the sea was rough and tempestuous (b) his colleagues had gone home (c) their night’s toil was fruitless (d) the Sabbath day was beginning
Jesus taught that the attitude of Christians towards forgiveness should be (a) limitless (b) restricted (c) purposeful (d) conditional
Which of the personalities presided over the Jewish trial of Jesus? (a) Caiaphas (b) Herod (c) Gamaliel (d) Pilte
When the Chief Priests and Elders heard that Jesus had risen, they offered money to the soldiers so that (a) the soldiers could prepare for a celebration (b) the soldiers would give false report concerning resurrection (c) they would go out to spread the news (d) they could search for the risen Christ
Herod’s expectation in receiving Jesus for a trial was to (a) see sign from Jesus (b) become a friend of Pilate (c) set Jesus free (d) punish Jesus
Pontius Pilate condemned Jesus to death so that (a) the Jews might be pleased (b) the emperor might honour him (c) justice could be done (d) Barabbas could be freed
Joseph of Arimathea expressed his faith in Jesus when he (a) comforted Jesus ‘mother (b) supported Jesus’ disciples (c) buried Jesus in his tomb (d) pleaded for Jesus’ release
Herod Agrippa killed James in order to (a) offer breathing space to Judaism (b) punish Christians from outside Jerusalem (c) win confidence of the Jews (d) seek revenge for the Herods.
The fulfillment of the royal law, according to James involves (a) being impartial (b)loving your neighbor as yourself (c) staying away from sin (d) showing kindness
Peter expected elders of the Church to lead their flock (a) extraordinarily (b) timelessly (c) selflessly (d) bossily
God created man and asked him to dominate all the following except (a) fish of the sea (b) spirits of the earth (c) birds of the air (d) creeping animals
Adam called Eve woman because she was (a) a resemble of man (b) a resemblance of man (c) mother of mankind (d) made out of man
Which of the following experiences did Joseph not go through? He was (a) sold into slavery (b) sentenced and imprisoned (c) cast into a pit (d) molested and raped
Joseph earned his brothers’ hatred because (a) he carried ill report of them to Jacob (b) he was a dreamer (c) Jacob had more love for Joseph (d) he did not join them to shepherd the flock
A Joseph revealed himself to his brother, he told them that God allowed him to be sold into slavery so as to (a) stop the famine (b) preserve life (c) punish them (d) seek revenge
The parents of Moses belonged to the tribe of (a) Judah (b) Benjamin (c) Levi (d) Ephraim
The parents of Moses did the following to ensure his survival except (a) casting him into the river (b) hiding him for three months (c) putting him a padded basket (d) his sister watching over him
These are your goals, O isreal, who brought you up out of the land of Egypt! This statement was a manifestation of Israel’s (a)unfaithfulness (b) immorality (c) adultery (d) idolatry
Deborah, a prophetess who was a judge in Israel was the wife of (a) Barak (b) Lappidoth (c) Joshua (d) Sisera
The two Sons of Eli were (a) Hophni and Phinehas (b) Phinehas and Joel (c) Joel and Abijah (d) Hophni and Abijah
The sons of Eli were worthless because they (a) stole offering from the Lord’s house (b) treated the Lord’s offering with contempt (c) seized the Lord’s offering from the temple (d) took bribes and prevented Justice
It is the Lord, let him do what seems good to him. This statement by Eli shows that God (a) makes the final decision (b) knows everything (c) is impartial (d) is the Alpha and Omega
The elders of Israel went to Samuel to request for a King at (a) Jerusalem (b) Gilgal (c) Ramah (d) Ziph
The contest between Elijah and the Baal prophets took place on/at (a) Mount Sinai (b) Mount carmel (c) Brook Cherith (d) Brook Kishon
He will give his angels charge of you … and on their hands they will bear you up,….. What reply was given on this occasion?(a) You shall not tempt the Lord your God (b) Man shall not live by bread alone (c) You shall worship the Lord your God (d) Only God shall you serve

THEORY MOCK EXAMINATION

SECTION B

Answer only 4 questions

Give an account of the call of Abram.

b. In what three ways is the call significant?

Trace the circumstances that led to the famous judgement of King Solomon

b. What lessons can our leaders learn from the incident

Relate the account of the call of the Fishermen and the tax collector to discipleship

b. State four demands of discipleship

Describe Paul’s activities in Damascus and Jerusalem after his conversion

b. Give two effects of his conversion on the spread of the gospel

What advice did Paul give to the Christians at Thessalonica concerning the preparation for the coming of the Land?

b. List two ways by which Christian today can prepare for the Parousia.

Give an account of the healing of Naaman

b. What three lessons can be derived from this story?

How was greed demonstrated in the life of Gehazi?

b. Give three areas in the society where greed is prevalent.

***SS3* COMMERCE MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

SS3 MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: COMMERCE TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS 30MINS CLASS: S.S 3

OBJECTIVES

1. Activities which facilitate commerce include

A. engaging youths in environmental sanitation B. Funding political campaigns

C. providing recreational facilities in communities D. improving road networks.

2. A document through which invitation is extended to subscribe to shares is

A. article of association B. prospectus C. memorandum of association. D. quotation.

3.One example of a product of the construction industry is a

A. chair. B. bag of cement C. price of cloth. D. television.

4. A person authorised to sell the property of a company in a winding up is

A. an auctioneer. B. an agent. C. a liquidator. D. a bailee.

Use the diagram below to answer question 5-7.

5. The space marked A represent. A.trading B. industry. C. occupation D. advertising.

6.The space marked X represents A. industry B. foreign trade. C. home trade

D. production.

7. What does the space marked M represents? A. Quarrying. B. Manufacturing

C. Agriculture. D. Trade.

8. The purchase and sale of goods over electronic system is

A. E-payment. B. E-commerce C. E-mail. D. E-transfer

9. One disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is

A. quick decision making B. unlimited liability C. pride of ownership.

D. unlimited source of capital

10. Which of this is a source of short-term finance to a business?

A. Hire purchase. B. Overdraft C. Lease. D. Debenture.

11. The portion of share capital which the company has asked the shareholder to pay is

A. called-up capital B. authorized capital C. paid-up capital D. unpaid capital

12. Multilateral trade is carried out A. Between two countries only.

B. Within many countries C. Among amnycountries. D. between neighbouring countries only.

13. An association of businesses engaged in both trade and industry is a

A. co-operative society B. trade union. C. trust fund. D. chamber of commerce.

14. Which of the following statement is true of debenture?

A. its holder receive interest. B. it forms part of company’s authorized capital.

C. its holders are co-owners of the company. D. its holder control the company.

15. The path through which a product moves from the manufacturer to the consumer is a

A. channel of communication. B. line of production. C. means of transportation.

D. channel of distribution.

16. If the opening stock of Ali Ltd is ₦40,000, cost of goods sold is ₦48,000 and closing stock is ₦24,000, its rate of turnover will be? A. 1.2 times B. 1.5 times C. 2.0 times. D. 7.5 times.

17. A business which requires a certificate of trading in order to commence operation is a

A. co-operative society. B. private company C. sole proprietorship. D. public company.

18. Exchange of goods in international market which does not involve the use of money is

A. barter trade. B. entrepot trade. C. counter trade. D. bilateral trade.

19. Which of the following is not associated with a chamber of commerce ? it is

A. democratically administered B. an independent association.

C. open only to enterpreneurs D. a voluntary association.

20. The reason for sending a proforma invoice to a potential customer is that it is

A. an indication of the sellers willingness to grant credit.

B. A polite way of telling the customer to return the goods.

C. an invitation to the buyer to buy on hire purchase

D. a polite wat of refusing to sell on credit

21. The insurance policy taken to cover dishonesty of accounts personnel of an organisation is A. employers liability. B. fidelity guarantee. c. life endowment. D. marine insurance

22. Which of the following documents is used when goods are being sent by a common carrier? A. Delivery note B. Consignment note. C. Advice note D. Credit note.

23. A put option in the stock exchange is an option A. to sell. B. not to sell. C. to buy.

D. Not to buy.

24. The function of money do not include A. store of value B. medium of exchange.

C. double coincidence of want. D. means of deffered payment.

25. A document of tittle of goods written by the ship owner, specifying that certain goods are being conveyed in the ship is a A. bill of sale C. bill of sight D. bill of entry D. bill of lading.

26. Informative advertising is aimed at

A. giving advise on the use of a product. B. influencing customer to buy a product.

C. giving gifts to attract customers D. encouraging specific customers to buy a product

27. A cheap means of carrying bulky goods over long distance is by

A. rail. B. road. C. air. D. pipeline.

28. A contract terminated by the occurrence of an event which makes performance impossible is discharged by

A. breach. B. agreement. C. frustration. D. performance.

29. An individual employed to act on behalf of another within a specified guideline is

A. a jobber. B. an agent. C. a broker D. a distributor,

30. Which of the following is not a component of the marketing mix?

A. price. B. place. C. population. D. product

31. A method of buying in anticipation of price fluctuation in the commodity market is

A. speculation. b. arbitrage. C. contango D. hedging.

32. A shipping document detailing the charges for carrying a particular cargo for a specified voyage is A. dock warrant. B. freight note. C. bill of lading. D. mate’s receipt.

33. Commercial agents who are authorized to keep goods until they are sold are

A. factors. B. distributors. C. brokers. D. auctioneers.

34. An advertisement method whose objective is to convince customers to buy a product is

A. informative advertisement. B. persuasive advertisement.

C. competitive advertisement. D. mass advertisement.

35. A government legislation which ensures that quality goods and services are available to customer is A. Hire Purchase Act. B. Copyright Act. C. Price Control Act.

D. standard Organization act.

36. A bank draft is a cheque drawn by a bank on

A. another bank. B. itself. C. creditors. D. customers deposits.

37. A company is quoted on stock exchange when its shares are

A. put under private placement. B. not for sale to the public. C. listed for sale on the exchange. D. owned by the government.

38.which of the following function is not performed by the export promotion council?

A. Prevention of importation of harmful goods B. Provision of credit facilities to exporters.

C. Provision of technical advice to exporters. D. Creation of export free zones

39. Activities undertaken to create awareness of a product by giving out samples or gifts is

A. marketing mix. B. marketing concepts. C. window display. D. sales promotion.

40. An advantage of privatizing a firm is that it

A. becomes more efficient. B. sells goods at low price.

C. employs more workers. D. attracts more customers.

41. The transfer of authority by a superior officer to his subordinate in an organisation is

A. controlling. B. decentralization. C. delegation. D. directing.

42. The provision of schorlarship by a firm to needy students is part of its

A. political responsibility. B. economic responsibility. C. social responsibility.

D. legal responsibility.

43. How many countries form ECOWAS? A. 17 B. 16 C. 15 D. 14

44. Which of the following is a modern means of communication.

A. Grape vine B. E-mail. C. whistles D. Town crier.

45. A system of issuing new shares to selected investors instead of the general public is

A. pubic offer. B. issue by tender. C. offer for sale. D. private placement.

46. One of the aims of the European Union is to

A. ease trade among member countries B. enhance better trade with Africa.

C. enhance better trade with America. D. offer financial assistance to poor countries.

47. The purpose of commercialization is to

A. encourage the participation of the private sector. B. make state-owned firms more efficient. C. encourage the flow of foreign capital. D. enable state-owned firms pay tax.

48. The time allowed for loading and unloading a ship at the harbour is

A. demurrage. B. tenure. C. lay days. D. dead freight.

49. Interbank indebtedness is settled at the A. clearing house. B. money market.

C. discount house. D. stock exchange.

50. The concern of a marketing manager whose company has adopted the marketing concept is to A. recruit more salesmen. B. make maximum profit. C. identify and satisfy customers needs

D. maintain the company’s shares of the market.

THEORY

ANSWER ANY FIVE QUESTIONS FROM THIS PART

1. a. Outline five functions of commercial banks

b. List and explain five ways the central bank control the commercial banks

2. a. What is contract?

b. List and explain four ways by which a contract can be discharged

3 a. Write in full the following abbreviations as used in commerce I. COD II. CIF III. FOB

iv. E and O E

b. The sale of consumer goods costing #200,000 attracts a cash discount of 9% and a

quantity discount of 6% calculate the : I value of the quantity discount II. value of cash

discount III. net amount of money payable

4. a. What is stock exchange market?

b. Explain six functions of the stock exchange market

5. Explain each of the following insurance concept I. Re- insurance II. Under insurance III.

indemnity iv. non-indemnity insurance v. group insurance

6. a. Define the term market segmentation

b. List six factors that influence market segmentation

c. State five advantages of advertising

7. Explain the following documents used in international trade

a. Indent b. Bill of lading c. Consular invoice d. Certificate of origin e. Bill of exchange

8 a. Differentiate between nationalization and indigenization

b. State six reasons why a country would indegenize some industries to

***SS3* CIVIC EDUCATION MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: CIVIC EDUCATION TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS. 30MINS CLASS: S.S 3

1.The process of enabling someone to perform an action which will adds value to his or her life is known as(A)Employment(B)Recruitment(C)Socialisation(D)Empowerment

2.Rates are collected in Nigeria by(A)Federal Inland Revenue Service(B)State Ministry of Finance(C)Local Government Council(D)Council of Traditional Rulers

3.Lack of interest in politics by citizens in the country is referred to as political(A)Ignorance(B)Apathy(C)Participation(D)Socialisation

4.Orderliness can be defined as(A)Being punctual to work(B)Studying diligently in school(C)Doing things in a proper way(D)Learning the western way of life

5.Which of the following instruments is not used by a civil society group?(A)Propaganda(B)Boycott(C)Protest(D)Violence

6.The administrative class in the public service is to(A)Implement policies(B)Formulate policies(C)Veto policies(D)Oversee policies

7.One of the responsibilities of a good citizen is to(A)Posses an international passport(B)Enjoy all amenities provided by government(C)Serve the country when required(D)Develop his potentialities to the fullest

8.Naturalised citizens cannot be denied their legal status as members of a country unless if they(A)Are jailed for one year within seven years of acquiring citizenship(B)Are found guilty to be spies or secret agents for another country(C)Refuse to represent the country in an international sporting event(D)Give adequate information to host country

9.Citizenship education influences an individual to be(A)Educated(B)Patriotic(C)Complacent(D)Competent

10.Which of the following is not an example of orderliness?(A)Listen skills(B)Driving skills(C)Deviance(D)Decorum

11.Which of the following statements is not correct?(A)Valid driver’s license must be obtained before attempting to drive(B)Flowing garment can be worn on a motorcycle or bicycle(C)Headlights should be used during unfavourable weather(D)Drivers must not engage in distractive activities while driving

12.Cultism can be discourage through(A)Mentoring of cultists by the rich(B)Provision of jobs for cultists(C)Sensitization on the dangers of cultism(D)Establishment of cultists support groups

13.Which of the following is a consequence of drug abuse? (A)Depression (B)Victimization (C)Inefficiency(D)Cowardice

14.The effect of human trafficking on the victim is (A)Illiteracy (B)Affluence (C)Exposure (D)Exploitation

15.The general attitude of government and society towards cultism is that of(A)Affection(B)Sympathy(C)Abhorrence(D)Support

16.Drug abuse can be prevented by(A)Fighting drug addicts(B)Poverty reduction(C)Reducing drugs in circulation(D)Legal sanction

17.A major factor responsible for human trafficking is (A)Hunger (B)Illiteracy (C)Greed (D)Joblessness

18.People Living With HIV/AIDS(PLWHA)can be supported by(A)Billing them for antiretroviral therapy(B)Providing drugs for them at subsidized rates(C)Providing special attires for them

(D)Providing accommodation for them in designed locations

19.Drug law enforcement agencies in Nigeria are not empowered to(A)Execute drug suspects(B)Arrest drug barons(C)Prosecute drug traffickers(D)Rehabilitate drug addicts

20.Which of the following is not a means of reducing the incidence of HIV/AIDS in our society?(A)Educating and enlightenment programmes(B)The use of specially designed cutlery by victims(C)Avoiding pre-marital and extra-marital sex(D)Upholding the value of chastity

21.Youth empowerment promotes(A)Self reliance(B)Youth exuberance(C)Pursuit of higher education(D)Foreign scholarship

22.The Supreme Court in Nigeria helps in law(A)Drafting(B)Application(C)Interpretation (D)Enforcement

23.Democracy thrives mostly where there is(A)Non partisan judiciary(B)Freedom of speech and association(C)Absence of universal suffrage(D)One party system

24.Rule of law is limited by the following except(A)State of emergency(B)Habeas Corpus(C)Illiteracy(D)Immunity

25.Preventive measure of HIV/AIDS do not include(A)Abstinence(B)Screening of blood before transfusion(C)Use of barrier methods(D)Stigmatization of victims

26.One of the reasons leaders fail to protect the interest of their followers is(A)Selfishness(B)Inadequate finance(C)Ignorance(D)Rigid process

27.Which of the following is not a form of political participation(A)Taking part in voters’registration exercise(B)Voting during election(C)Joining political party(D)Ballot box stuffing during elections

28.Civil society groups perform the following roles during general election except(A)Educating the voters(B)Serving as watch dog(C)Counting of votes(D)Stimulating participation

29.Which of the following is not an example of civil society groups?(A)United Action for Democracy(B)United Nations Organisation(C)Transition Monitoring Group(D)Amnesty International

30.One of the major complaints against public service is (A)Inefficiency (B)Understaffing (C)Victimization(D)Discriminating

31.Which of the following is not a way of improving public service? (A)Politicization (B)Refresher courses(C)The use of Code of Conduct Bureau(D)Reformation

32.Children that are not cared for are mostly prone to(A)Criminal attitudes(B)Terminal diseases(C)Examination failure(D)Forced migration

33.The most important place for building good value is the(A)Social welfare centre (B)Workplace(C)Family(D)Media house

34.Citizen’s compliance with tenets of the Nigerian National Pledge will enable the county to(A)Receive reciprocal assistance(B)Witness value clarification(C)Get international aid(D)Experience development

35.Which of these is not a reason for political apathy(A)Bad governance(B)Electoral malpractice(C)Free and fair election(D)Ignorance

36.Which of the following political parties has the picture of a cock as its logo?(A)Labour(B)All Progressive Gland Alliance(C)All progressive Party(D)Accord Party

37.Queuing for accreditation and voting is a good manifestation of political(A)Apathy(Disregard(C)Passiveness(D)Participation

38.The observance of law and order in the society can lead to the following except (A)Chaos (B)Development(C)Peace(D)Justice

39.Which of these is not an agency responsible for the maintenance of law and order in Nigeria?(A)Federal Road Safety Corps(B)Nigeria Security and Civil Defence Corps(C)Red Cross(D)Nigerian Police

40.Which of the following does not influence teenagers to drug abuse?(A)Family(B)Peer group(C)Stimulant(D)Thrill seeking tendencies

41.The process of acquiring good values,beliefs,norms and attitudes in relation to politics is called political(A)Agenda(B)Propaganda(C)Culture(D)Socialisation

42.Which of these is not a skill for resolving inter-communal conflicts?(A)Dialogue(B)Tolerance(C)Objectivity(D)Competition

43.The public service structure of Nigeria is an offshoot of………. model? (A)America (B)British(C)Canadian(D)Japanese

44.The cause of human trafficking include the following except(A)Compassion (B)Corruption(C)Unemployment(D)Ignorance

45.One major shortcoming of the Nigeria Public Service is(A)Accountability of the public servants(B)Excessive bureaucracy(C)Low political interference(D)In service training

46.The agent of political socialisation that has wider coverage is the(A)Family(B)Mass media(C)Pressure group(D)School

47.The sense of consciousness and service orientation of citizens to the nation is called(A)Nepotism(B)Philanthropy(C)Ethnicity(D)Nationalism

48.The Nigeria House of Representative members in addition with the Senate members is made up of how many members(A)442(B)467(C)469(D)460

49.Administering Oath of Office to the President of the country is the sole responsibility of the(A)Attorney General of the Federation(B)Chief Justice of the Federation(C)Minister of Justice(D)Senate President

50.The process of bringing awareness to the electorates on political matters is known as(A)Rally(B)Manifesto(C)Campaign(D)Propaganda

THEORY: INSTRUCTION: ATTEMPT ONLY 6 QUESTIONS

1. Explain the meaning of democracy. B. Explain five importance of democracy

C.Highlight three problems of democracy

2.Explain five causes of road accident in Nigeria

B. Suggest four possible solutions to road accidents in Nigeria

C. State three functions of FRSC in Nigeria.

3.What is political apathy? B.Mention Five forms of political apathy

C.Explain four ways of discouraging political apathy

4.List five features of the 1999 constitution of Nigeria

B.Highlight four significance of the 1999 constitution

C.State three defects of Nigeria 1999 constitution

5.State Four significance of contentment in the Nigeria society

B.Explain three negative effects of lack of contentment in the society

C.What is contentment?

6.Define youth empowerment. B.List three youth empowerment skills

C.State three efforts of government towards youth empowerment

7.Define civil society B. Explain Five functions of civil society

C.Highlight 3 examples of civil society

8.What is human trafficking? B.Explain five causes of human trafficking

C.State Five solutions to human trafficking

9.Suggest Five solutions to cultism in Nigeria. B.Explain three causes of cultism in Nigeria

C.Highlight 5 negative effects of cultism to our society.

10.What is citizenship education? B. State five importance of Citizenship education

C. Explain three ways of acquiring citizenship

***SS3* CHEMISTRY MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS. 30MINS CLASS: S.S 3

1.If the relative molecular mass of an element is not a whole number, it can be deduced that the element is

a. naturally radioactive b. abundant in nature c. a transition metal d. an isotopic mixture

2. Which of the following decreases when a given mass of gas is compressed to half its initial volume? A. average intermolecular distances b. frequency of collisions

c. number of molecules present d. atomic radius of each particle

3. Calculate the mass of chlorine gas which occupies a volume of 1.12dm³ at s.t.p.

(Cl=35.5,1 mole of gas occupies 22.4dm³at s.t.p. a.1.80g b.3.55g c.7.10g d.15.50g

4. Determine the mass of sulphur(iv) oxide obtained when 91.0g of oxygen reacts completely with sulphur according to the following equations S_(s)+O₂——-SO₂(g).(S=32,O=16)

a.123g b.139g c.155g d.182g

5. Which of the following elements form an ionic chloride? A. magnesium b .carbon c. phosphorus d. Hydrogen

6. A sample of orange juice is suspected to have been contaminated with a yellow dye. Which of the following methods can be used to detect the dye?

Decantation b) chromatography (c) distillation (d) filtration (e) evaporation

7. The bond between two iodine molecules is (a).co-ordinate bond (b) electrovalent bond (c).ionic bond (d)van der waal’s forces

8. Bonds between a highly electronegative atom and a hydrogen from another molecule is called (a).hydrogen bond (b).covalent bond (c).intermolecular forces (d).ligand.

9.The nitride ion is N^-3.What is the formula of the nitride of an alkali metal X.

a.X₃N₅ B.XN₃ C.X₂N₃ d.X₃N

10.What type of chemical bonding is involved in the formation of NH₄⁺ from a molecule of ammonia and a proton. a. Hydrogen bonding b. co-ordinate covalent bonding c. electrovalent bonding d. covalent bonding

11. Which of the following properties of elements decreases generally across a period in the periodic table? (a) electronegativity (b) electron affinity (c) atomic radius (d) ionization energy.

12. The heat of combustion of carbon(ii)oxide is -60KJ.Calculate the heat evolved when 14g of CO are burnt.(C=12, O=16). a.300KJ b.200KJ C.30KJ d.15KJ

13. One of the following will not affect a chemical system at equilibrium

a. Temperature b. Catalyst c. Pressure d. Concentration

14. The product of an endothermic reaction are

a. higher in enthalpy than the reactant b. lower in enthalpy than the reactant

c .the same in enthalpy as the reactant d. the change in enthalpy is less than zero

15. Which of the following metals will react with cold water to produce hydrogen gas?

a. calcium b. aluminium c. copper d .magnessium

16. Which component of air is removed when air is bubbled through a solution of alkaline pyrogallol? a.carbon (iv)oxide b.Nitrogen c.Oxygen d.Helium

17.Oygen is obtained from liquid air by a. Fermentation b. Fractional distillation

c. Filtration d. Sublimation

18. A system is in equilibrium when a. ∆G is positive b.∆ G is negative c. ∆G is zero d. ∆G is constant.

18.Halogens are a. strong reducing agents b. strong oxidizing agents

c. strong actions d. strong donors of electrons

19. Chlorine is best collected by a. upward displacement of air b. downward displacement of air c. over water d .over mercury

20. Which of the oxides of nitrogen is a neutral oxide? a.N₂O₄ b.NO₂ C.N₂O₅ d.NO

21.Plastic sulphur is a. A crystalline allotrope of sulphur b. A super cooled form of sulphur

c. A form of sulphur rings packed together

d. Forms monoclinic sulphur when left

22.What will happen if more heat is

applied to the following system at equilibrium? X₂+3Y₂¬˾2XY_3(g) ΔH=xkjmol^-1

a. the yield of XY₃ will increase b. more of XY₃ will decompose c. more of X₂ will react

D. the forward reaction will go into completion.

23.Effervescence occurs when water comes in contact with a.calcium b. copper c. sulphur d. lead

24. 1. The gas that can be best collected by downward displacement of air (a) chlorine (b) carbon(iv)oxide (c) sulphur (iv)oxide (d) ammonia

Consider the reaction : CO(g)+H₂O˾¬CO₂(g)+H₂(g)

ΔH=-41KJmol^-1

25.Which of the following conditions has no effect on the equilibrium mixture?

a. pressure applied on the system b. temperature of the system c. removal of one of the reactants d. removal of the products as they are formed.

26.If copper has an oxidation state of +2 in a complex ion represented as (Cu(X)₄)⁺²

What is the electrical charge of X? a.-4 b.-2 c.0 d.-2

27.Which of the following equation represents direct combination?

a. Fe³⁺ _(aq) + e^– —Fe²⁺b. H⁺_(aq) +OH^–—-H₂O_(aq)c. Zn +Cl₂—–ZnCl₂(s)

d. Ag_(aq) +Cl^–—–AgCl_(s)

28. The following are characteristics of colloids except

a. tyndal effect on light beam b. solid phase are removed by dialysis c. colloidal particles are larger than that of suspensions

d. colloidal particles are separated using parchment membranes.

29. 144 g of KCl dissolved in 1dm³of water at 90°C in the presence of excess crystals of KCl. Calculate the solubility of KCl at this temperature.(K=39,Cl=35.5)

a.0.89moldm^-3 b.1.93moldm^-3 c.1.75 moldm^-3 d.1.5moldm^-3

30. What is the volume occupied by 2 moles of ammonia at S.T.P?

A. 44.8dm^-3 B. 22.4dm^-3 C. 11.2dm^-3D. 5.6dm^-3

31.Cr₂O^-2₇+ 14H⁺ + xe ^– 2Cr³⁺ + 7H₂O

The number of moles(x) of electrons in the above half cell equation is: (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 6

32. the volume occupied by 0.4g of hydrogen gas at STP is (H=1.00, molar volume at STP =22.4 dm³)

(a) 2.24 dm³ (b) 4.48dm³ (c) 22.4dm³ (d) 8.96 dm³

33. A measure of degree of disorderliness in a chemical system is known as: (a)enthalpy (b) free energy (c) entropy (d) activation energy

34. H_2(g)+ x_2(g) 2HX_(g) ΔH=positive. In the above reaction,a decrease in temperature will:

(a) decrease the concentration of HX (b) favour the forward reaction

35. 3Fe_(s)+4H₂O_(g)Fe₃O₄+ 4H_2(g).The equilibrium constant K of the reaction above is represented as: (a) [H₂]⁴/[H₂O]⁴(b) [Fe]³ [H₂O]⁴/[Fe₃O₄] [H₂]⁴(c)[Fe₃O₄][H₂]⁴/[Fe]³[H₂O]⁴ (d)[H₂]⁴/[H₂]⁴

36. What is the quantity of electricity produced when a current of 0.5 A is passed for 5 hours 45 minutes (F=96500)? (a)0.11F (b)0.22F (c) 0.12F (d) 1.1F

37. The shape of water molecule is a. angular b. tetraheral c. pyramidal d. linear

38.The quantity of petrol obtained from crudeoil can be increased by

redistilling the heavier fractions b. condensing the lighter fractions

polymerizing the lighter fractions d. cracking the heavier

39. If an excess of liquid hydrocarbon is poured into a jar of chlorine and the sealed jar is then exposed for several hours to bright sunlight, all the chlorine gas is consumed. The hydrocarbon is said to have undergone. (a) apoly merization reaction (b) an addition reaction (c) a substitution reaction (d) a reduction reaction

Give the IUPAC name for the structure O

CH₃CH₂C

NH₂

(a) Propanamide (b) Propanamine (c) Amino propane (d) Ammonia Proponoic acid

40. Which of these Homolygnos has the small of fish or fishy odour?

(a) alkanois (b) Aminos (c) Alkanoates (d) Ether

41.A carbon hydrocarbons consists of 92.35% carbon. If its vapour density is 39,determine its molecular formular. a.C₃H₃b.C₆H₆ c.CH d.C₉H_9.

42. A solutions of sodium trioxocarbonate (iv) contains 10.6g in 250cm³ of solution. Calculate the concentration of the solution. [Na₂CO₃ = 106.0]

A. 0.4mol dm^-3 B. 1.0moldm^-3C. 10.6moldm^-3 D. 25.0moldm^-3

43. Iron is paramagnetic because a. its orbitals have few unpaired electrons b. its orbitals have only paired electrons c. iron has large number of unpaired electrons d. it is ferromagnetic

44. Zinc is not regarded as a transitional metal even though it is a d-block element because

a. it has no electron in 3 d-block b. it has all 3 d-orbitals completely filled c.it blends with other neighbouring elements d. it does not form complex ion like others.

45. Dehydration of carbohydrate by concentrated H₂SO₄ will give (a) black residue of carbon (b) the components monosaccharides (c) sooth of coal (d) a yellow – brown known as caramel.

46. Which of the following is used for the removal of impurities from bauxite? (a)Na₃AIF₆ (b) NaOH (c) H₂SO₄ (d) CaCO₃

47. Consider the reaction represented by the following equation:

H-CºC-H ^H2 X ^H2Y; X and Y respectively are

A. ethene and ethane B. ethane and ethane C. ethyne and ethane D. ethane and propene

48. Compound N reacts with sodium metal to produce a gas that gives a “pop” sound with a burning splint. N also reacts with ethanol to give a sweet smelling liquid. Compound N is an

A. alkanol B. alkanoate C. alkane D. alkanoic acid

49. The IUPAC name of the compound

CH₃ CH₃

CH₃CH– CH – CH₃

a. 2,3 – dimethyl pent – 2,3 – one b. 3,4 – dimethyl pept – 2 – one

c. 2,3 – dimethyl butane d. 3,4 – dimethyl pentene

50. The alkanoate CH₃CH₂COOC₂H₅is the product of the reaction between:

(a) ethanoic acid and ethanol (b) ethanoic acid and propanol

THEORY

ATTEMPT ANY THREE QUESTIONS

A		B
C	D	F	G	H	I	J
K	L	N	O	P	Q	R
S	T

a. Give the letter representing

the strongest oxidizing agent

the strongest reducing agent

a noble gas

an element which forms a +2 ion

an element which forms a +3 ion

b. Write the formula of the compound formed between

F and H

K and Q

c. If the electronic configuration of an ion Q²⁺ is 1s²2s²2p⁶,give the

i. atomic number of Q

II. formula of the chloride of Q

Iii .reason why Q is described as an s-block element.

(1mk each)

2 a. An element X belongs to the same group as sodium but is more reactive.

Suggest with reasons whether X would be an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent.(1mk)

What would be a suitable method of storing X in the Laboratory?(1mk)

Describe briefly what would be observed if a small piece of X were dropped into a trough of cold water which had been coloured with red litmus.(2mks)

Write an equation to show how an oxide of X would react with dilute HCl.(1mk)

bi. State Faraday’s second law of electrolysis.(1mk)

ii. Draw and label a simple cell for the electrolytic purification of copper.(2mks)

iii. Write an equation for the reaction at each electrode in the electrolysis of copper.(2mks)

3. ai. List the two products formed when ethyne burns completely in air.(1mk)

ii. Give the name and structural formula of the second member of the alkyne series.(2mks)

iii. Name the type of reaction involved in the conversion of ethanol to

ethene ii. chloroethane iii. ethanoic acid.(1/2mk each)

What is meant by each of the following terms?

i. saponification (1mk)

ii. Esterification (1mk)

d. List three properties of elements which increase generally across a period in the periodic table.(11/2mks)

e. Give two differences between a chemical reaction and a nuclear reaction.(2mks)

4.a. i. Calculate the Solubility of Na₂CO₃ at 25⁰C, If 20cm3 of its saturated solution at that temperature gave 1.75g of the anhydrous salt.

(C=12,0=16,Na=23)

List three types of salts

What types of salts are ALUMS?

State the function of Alum in water treatment plant.

b. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium:

PCl₅¬˾PCl_3(g)+Cl_2(g)

ΔH=+95kJmol^-1

Write an expression for the equilibrium constant K

Predict the effect of each of the following on the equilibrium position

1. increased pressure

2. increased temperature

3. removal of chlorine

iii. Sketch an energy profile diagram for the forward reaction.

5.a i. Using equations only, show the processes involved in the extraction of ion and the removal of impurities in the blast furnace.

ii. The following reactions occurs when a piece of iron is exposed to moist air for some days.

4Fe_(s)+3O₂+xH₂O_(l)͢͢2Fe₂O₃.xH₂O_(S)

State three methods by which this reaction can be prevented.

iii. What is the oxidation number of iron in the product (ii).

b. i. List the characteristic properties of transition metals

ii. Which of the following metals belong to the first transition series?

Chromium, Lead, Iron, Magnesium , Aluminium, Manganese

Copy and complete the following table

Alloy	Constituent elements	One
Bronze
Steel
Duralumin

***SS3* BOOK KEEPING MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

SS3 MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: BOOK KEEPING TIME ALLOWED: 3HRS CLASS: S.S 3

OBJECTIVES

1. The double entry system of bookkeeping was introduced by.

A. Adam Smith B.A.R. Jennings. C. Frank Wood. D. Lucca Pacioli.

2. An item on the debit side of a petty cash book is.

A. Stationery. B. Transport. C. Float. D. rent.

3. when a provision is made against doubtful debts, the business owner is applying

A. Entity Concept B. Matching Concept C. Prudence Concept. D. Dual-aspect concept.

4. Items classified as assets in the balance sheet include.

A. overdraft. B. Drawings. C. Trademark. D. Creditors.

5. Purchases day book and returns outwards book are records kept by the

A. Seller. B. Buyers. C. Agents. D. supplier

6. Individual accounts of supplier are maintained in the?

A. Personal Ledge B. sales ledger C. Purshases ledger D. general ledger.

7. Members of co-operative society receive returns as

A. Dividends. B. Profit. C. Grants. D. Commissions.

8. Eze bought goods for #10000 on credit and #4,500 for cash. He returned goods worth #1,500. The closing balance in his purchases account is

A. #16,000 B. #14,500 C.# 13,000 D.# 8,500

9. The statements of accounts that performs the dual roles of a journal and a ledger is.

A. Cash book. B. Sales Journal. C. Purchases journal D. Trial balance

10. An amount given to a petty cashier at the beginning of an accounting period is

A. Reimbursement B. Float. C. imprest. D. Disbursement

11. Records of a customer’s financial transaction with the bank is contained in the bank

A. Overdraft. B. List. C. account. D. Statement

12. Lizzy limited bought a motor vehicle for use on credit from Egudap Motors, the entries in Lizzy books are: debit

A. Vehicle Account; credit Egudap Motors Account. B. Purshases Account; Credit Egudap Motors account. C., Purshases Account; Credit Vehicle Account.

D. Vehicle account; credit Bank Account.

13. Sales of #3,000 to Atilola was debited to Akinola’s account. This is an error of

A. compensation. B. commission. C. principle. D. Transposition.

14. A trial balance has credit total of #43,000 and debit total of #34,000.A suspense account should be opened and debited with?

A.# 43,000 B.# 34,000 C. #9,000 D.# 4,500

15. Items in a Debtors Control Account include?

A. Credit purchases B. cash paid C. discount received D. discount allowed.

Use the following information to answer question 16-17

Cost of asset- #100,000

Depreciation- 10% on a reducing balance basis

16. Depreciation for the second year of use is A. #19,000 B.# 10,000 C.# 9,000

D. #1,000

17. The net book value of the asset at the end of the third year of use is?

A. #80,000 B. #72,900 C. #70,000 D. #65,610

18. The sum of money due to be paid from a member of a club which is yet to be paid at the end of an accounting period is? A. Subscription in advance.B. subscription in arrears.

C. excess expenditure D. excess income.

19.Which of the following details is not found in purchases day book?

A. Date of purchase. B. Use of goods purchased. C. Cost of goods purchased.

D. A reference to how double entry is completed.

20. An example of source documents is. A. general journal. B. sales journal.

C. Credit note. D. Cash book.

21. Income and Expenditure Account is prepared to determine the

A. gross profit or loss. B. Net profit or loss. C. surplus or deficite. D. accumulated fund or working capital.

22. The purchase of machinery entered in a nominal account is an error of

A. omission B. compensation C. commission. D. principle.

23. The amount paid for the acquisition of an existing business by an entrepreneur is?

A. retained value B. purchase consideration C. Selling price. d. purchase price.

24. An item on the credit side of a Profit and Loss Account is

A. carriage outwards. B. carriage inwards. C. discount received. D. discount allowed.

25. General is used to keep A. expenses account. B. income account. C. assets account.

D. debtors account

26. The concept that is a business is treated separately from those who have financial interest in it is A. prudence. B. entity. C. objectivity. D. consistency.

27. The total amount of bad debts written off is debited to the

A. balance sheet. B.receipts and payments account. C. trading account.

D. Profit and loss account.

28. Sales of #151 was entered in the books as #115. The entries to correct this error are: debit

A. Sales Account #36; credit Cash Account #36. B. Cash Account #36; credit Sales Account #36. C. Sales Account #115; credit Cash Account #115. D. Cash Account #151; credit sales Account #151.

29. The documents which sets out guidelines for the internal management of a joint stock company is

A. Memorandum of Association. B. Articles of Association. C. Memorandum of Understanding. D. Certificate of Incorporation.

30. The objective of a co-operative society is to protect the

A. position of the members. B. interest of the members. C. careers of the members.

D. dividend of the members.

31. A current assets item in the balance sheet of a sole trader is

A. drawings. B. creditors. C. debtors. D. accruals.

32. Chucks bought goods worth #1,000 on credit and was given a discount of 21/2%.The discount receivable is . A. #75 B. #25. C. #20. D. #15.

33. When the debit side total of a ledger is greater than the credit side total, the balance is

A. cash balance. B. debit balance C. credit balance. D. bank balance.

34. An obligation which a business owes another business or person is

A. an asset. B. an expenses. C. an income. D. a liability.

35. Subscription in arrears of a not-for-profit making organization is treated in the balance sheet as a A. fixed asset. B. current asset. C. current liability D. long-term liability.

36. The amount for a vehicle bought on credit for office use is recorded in the

A. cash book B. purchases day book. C. purchases returns journal. D. general journal.

Use the following information to answer question 37-38.

Debtors 14,000

Creditors 6,000

Bank 5,000

Accruals 4,000

Stock 3,000

Provision for doubtful debts 2,000

37. The amount of current assets in the balance sheet is A. #22,000 B. #20,000

C. #12,000 D. #10,000

38. The working capital is A. #22,000 B. #20,000 C. #12,000 D. #10,000

39. A transaction in which the buyer promises to fulfil his financial obligation at a later date is recorded in the books of the buyers as A. contract transaction B. Bank transaction

C. credit transaction D. Cash transaction

40. The capital of a sole proprietorship business is recorded in the

A. sales ledger B. impersonal ledger C. private ledger D. general ledger

SECTION B

ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

1. Explain the following accounting concepts

a. Business entity b. Going concern c. Accruals d. Historical cost e. Money measurements

2. a. What is trial balance?

b. Explain the following type of errors I. Omission II. Principle III. Commission iv. Original entry

3. a. What is final account?

b. Differentiate between I. cash discount and trade discount II. discount allowed and discount received

4. Explain the following terms in book keeping

a. Bad debt b. Provision for bad debt c. Accrued income d. Prepaid expenses e. Accrued

expenses

SECTION C

ANSWER ANY THREE QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

5. The following balances relate to sales and purchases ledger of favour enterprises for the month of August 2018

Debtors 1st August 2018. 16,264

Creditors 1st August 2018. 6,975

Credit sales. 27,067

Credit purchase. 10,341

Purchases returns. 2,386

Sales returns. 2,825

Cash paid to creditors. 7,123

Cash paid to debtors 18,429

Discount allowed. 2,518

Bad debt. 1,136

Discounts received. 1,197

Cash refunded to customers 560

Required :prepare total debtors control account and total creditors control account

6. Ayomide a book keeper extracted the following information from the books of a trader in

June 2018

June 1 David a customer was incorrectly debited with #5,000 being value of goods sold to

Alex

June 8 Goods worth #3,000 were returned to Precious. The returns was entered in returns

inwards book

June 10 Sales of #3,690 to Chidubem were entered in the books as #3,609

June 13 Goods worth #6,000 withdrawn by the owner for personal use has been omitted

from the books

June 14 Purchase of furniture for #10,000 was debited to purchases account

June 15 Installation charges of #10,500 incurred on plant and machinery was charged for

legal expenses account

Prepare a journal to correct these errors

7. The following balances were extracted from the books of Grace on 31st March. 2015

# #

Capital. 350,000

Drawings. 7200

Stock at 1st April 2014. 34,800

Purchases and sales. 160,500. 250,400

Returns. 5,500. 4,500

Carriage inwards. 2,600

Carriage outwards. 9,300

Debtors and creditors. 52,000. 27,000

Bad debt. 1,600

Salaries and wages. 29,800

Electricity. 8,700

Office expenses. 5,900

Land and building at cost. 250,000

Equipment at cost. 100,000

Depreciation land & building. 25,000

Depreciation equipment. 19,000

Discounts. 3,600. 7,200

Provision for doubtful debts 2,800,

Cash and bank. 14,300,

Total. 685,800. 685,800

Additional information

a. Closing stock #29,000

b. Electricity owing #4,000 and salaries prepaid #5,800

c Provision for doubtful debts is to be reduced to #1,500

d. Provide for depreciation of fixed assets as follows :

Land & building 5% on cost, Equipment 10% on diminishing balance basis

Required : prepare trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31st March 2015 and

a balance sheet as at that date

8. Balam started business 1st April, 2015 with a capital of #300,000.The following is the

summary of his business transaction during the month.

April 2 bought goods for cash. 130,000

April 3 cash sales. 170,000

April 5 furniture bought for cash. 60,000

April 5 cash sales. 240,000

April 6 lent to zanu. 50,000

April 16 paid wages. 120,000

April 19 sundry expenses. 1,000

April 25 drawings. 40,000

April 30 payment for rent. 35,000

Required :

Write up the ledger account, extract the trial balance as at 30th April 2015

9. Okeowo a trader, uses periodic inventory system. The business records show the

beginning inventory of 900 unit at #10 each on 1st January 2015. The purchases and issues of the items during the month are as follows:

Date. Receipt. Price. Issues

Unit. # unit

Jan 5. 1,200. 11. –

Jan 7. – – 1,500

Jan 11 3,000. 12. –

Jan 15. – – 1500

Jan 17. 4,000. 13. –

Jan 22. – – 4,200

Jan 24. 900. 15. –

Jan 27. – – 1,200

A physical count indicates 1,600 units in inventory at month end. You are required to

calculate the :

a. Cost of goods sold using FIFO b. Value of closing stock using FIFO

***SS3* BIOLOGY MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: BIOLOGY TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS. 30MINS CLASS: S.S 3

1.The study of plant is called A.botany B.entomology C.parasitology D.zoology

2.Which of the following is not a characteristics of living things? A. expansion B. feeding C.growth D.reproduction

3.Which of the following is a saprophyte? A.fern B.hydra C.mushroom D.paramecium

4.The basic unit of classification is the A.class B. genus C.kingdom D.species

5.The excretory structure in earthworm is called A.anus B. flame cell C.kidney D. nephridium

6.Which of this animals is an_____ in vertebrate? A. lizard B.rat C.starfish .D.tilapia fish

7.An example of a radially symmetrical organism is A. amoeba B. hydra C.planaria D.tapeworm

8.The deficiency of vitamin D in the diet of man leads to A. anaemia B.beri-beri C.ricket D.scurvy

9.Which of the following is the end product of digestion of oil? A. amino acid B.fructose C. glycerol D.maltose

10.The coiled mouthparts of a butterfly is called A.labrum B.palps C.proboscis D.stylet

11.The instrument used for measuring wind speed is A. anemometer B.barometer C.hydrogen D.rain guage

Carefully study the diagram below and use it to answer questions 12 and 13

12. Gaseous exchange occurs in the part labeled A.I B.II C . III D.IV

13.The part labeled VI is used for A.excretion B.locomotion C.nutrition D.respiration

14. Deoxygenated blood is transported to the lungs through the A.hepatic portal vein B.pulmonary artery C.pulmonary vein D.renal artery

15.The part of the eye which transmits impulse to the brain is called A.blind spot B.conjunctiva C.cornea D. optic nerve

16.Which class of fruit does the diagram represents A. achene

B. berry C.cypsela D. drupe

17. The part labeled II is called A. endosperm B. endocarp C. mesocarp D.seed

18.The following are examples of sex linked characters except A.albinism B.baldness C.colour blindness D. dwarfism

The diagram below is a tissue map of a section of a herbaceous plant. Use the diagram to answer questions 19 and 21.

19 The diagram above is a transfverse section of a A.diacoytledonous root B.diacoytledonous stem C.monocoytledonous root D.monocotyledonous stem.

20.Efficient gaseous exchange occurs in the part labeled A. I B.II C.III D. IV

21.Which of the labeled part stains red when placed in eosin solution? A. I B. II C.III D. IV

22.Which of the following factors in an ecosystem is a decomposer? A. green plants B. sun C. bacteria D. herbivore

23.An air pollutant that damages plant is A. insecticide B. fertilizer C. sulphur dioxide D. sewage

24.Individual with blood group AB can donate blood to individuals with blood groups A .A and B B. A and O C. AB only D. O only.

25.The term variation is used to describe organisms A.feeding on different type of food B.showing different traits from each other C .which resembles their parents D. living in different habitats

26.If a woman with blood group O is married to a man of blood group AB then A.all their children will be blood group (B) .half of the children will be blood group AB and half will be blood group O C. all the children will be blood group O D.some of their children will belong to blood group O

27.A cross between a pure- bred black mouse and a pure-bred white mouse takes place where black colour is dominant over white colour and F1 generation is selfed. The phenotyptic ration of F2 will be A. 1:2:1 B.2;1: C. 3:1 D. 1:1:2

28.A blood group A accident victim who needs blood transfusion has no rhesus factor antigen in his blood.What type of blood can be transfused A. A⁺, O⁺ B. A⁺, O^– C.AB^–, O^– D. A^–, O^–

29. Two alternate forms of the same gene are known as A. alleles B. genotype C.heterozygote D.phenotype

Use the diagram below to answer the questions 30 and 31

30.The part labeled V is the A. amniotic cavity B. cervix C. foetus D. uterus

31.The part that protects foetus from damage is A. I B. II C.III D.IV

32. Which of these is present in both plant and animal cell? A.cell membrane B. cell sap C. cell wall D. chloroplast

33.Snails belong to the phylum A. annelida B. arthropoda C echinodermata D. mollusca

34. The enzyme present in the saliva is called A. lipase B.pepsin C. ptyalin D. trypsin

35.Which of the following is not a part of an eye? A. cochlea B.conjunctiva C.cornea D.iris

Use the diagram below to answer questions 36 and 38

36. The vertebra illustrated in the diagram above is A. caudal B.cervical C.lumbar D.thoracic

37.The part labeled III is called neural arch B.neural canal C.neural spine D.transverse process

38.The function of the part labeled II is for A.articulation with the muscles B.articulation with the next bone below C. passage of spinal cord D. passage of vertebrarterial canal

39.Which of the following is not a berry? A.coconut B. guava C.pawpaw D. pepper

40.The theory of “use and disuse” of body part was propounded by A.Carl Linneaus B.Charles Darwin C.Gregor Mendel D.Jean Lamarck

41.The knowledge of heredity and variations are not required in A. blood transfusion B crime detection C. determination of paternity D. longevity

42.Which of the following animals exhibit basking? A.cat B.cow C.duck D.lizard

43.The part of the male reproductive system that stores sperm is A. cowsper”s gland B.epididymis C.prostate gland D.seminal vesicle

45.The growth that occurs at the tip of shoot and root is called A.allometric B.apical C.isometric D.primary

46.Carnassial teeth are found in A.dog B. cow C.goat D.man

47.Which of the following bones is not a part of axial skeleton? A. backbone B.limbs C.ribs D. skull

Use the diagram above to answer48

48. The type of variation illustrated is A .continuous variation B. discontinuous variation C. morphological variation D. environmental variation

Use the diagram above to answer questions 49 and 50

49.The part labeled I is the A. cilium B. ectoplasm C .pellicle D .protoplasm

50.The part labeled III is used for A. digestion B. excretion C. locomotion D. osmoregulation

THEORY ; Answer two question in Part I, number 4 is compulsory plus any other one.

1a.List three forms in which cells exist (3mk)

ii.Give one example each of the forms listed in (ai) (3mk)

b.Make a diagram 6cm—10cm long of typical plant cell and label fully (8mk)

ci.In tabular form, state three differences between a plant cell and animal cell (3mk)

ii. State three similarities between a plant cell and an animal cell (3mk)

2a. In sequence, name the organs that constitute the alimentary canal of humans (6mk)

b. State

i. t hree structural differences

ii.three structural similarities

between the alimentary canal of a bird and human (6mk)

c.Explain briefly how the dentition of herbivore is adapted for feeding (6mk)

d.State two roles of the pancreas in digestion (2mk)

3ai..What is a habitat? (2mk)

ii.Explain briefly three roles of a decomposer in an ecosystem (3mk)

b.Exlpain briefly energy flow in a fresh water habitat (6mk)

ci State three harmful effects of microorganism to plant (3mk)

ii. State six beneficial effects of microorganisms to humans (6mk)

4ai. Explain the term agglutination as used in blood transfusion (3mk)

	Recipients
Donors	A	B	AB	O
A
B
AB				—
O	+

Ii The table below represents blood transfusion between blood donors and recipients.

Copy and complete the table using the keys(+) to represent compatibility and (-) to represent

compatibility.(7mk)

b.Explain how each of the following organisms are adapted for obtaining food

i.Mosquito larva;

ii. Dodder;

Grassland (10mk)

SECTION B :ANSWER ONLY ONE QUESTION IN THIS SECTION

5a.State two differences between tactic and nastic movement in plants (2m

b.Give two examples each of organisms that show

i.tactic movement

ii. nastic movement (4mk)

ci.State three ways of the mammalian skin (3mk)

ii.List three stimuli to which mammalian skin is sensitive (3mk)

d. State five effects of high temperature(5mk)

ei.What is courtship behaviours in anmals?(3mk)

ii.List three courtship behaviours in animals(3mk)

f. Name three organisms that carry out holozoic mode of nutrition(3mk)

g.Explain briefly how fingerprinting can used to detect crime (4mk)

SS3 MOCK PRACTICAL

TIME ALLOWED.2hrs

1a.Name the location of each of specimens A, B and D in the body of a mammal

A………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

B…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

D…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………(3mk)

b (i).Name the fluid in the specimen C……………………………………………………………………..(1mk)

ii. State two functions of the fluid named in (bi) above

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………(2mk)

iii. Which of the other specimen is specimen associate with? ……………………………………………………(1mk)

ci. State two observable differences between specimen A and B

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..(2mk)

ii. State observable of specimen B that adapt it to its function

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..(4mk)

d. State two biological importance of specimens B and D

B………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

.D…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..(2mk)

e.Make a drawing, 8cm—10cm long of specimen D.(10mk)

Study specimens E and F and answer the questions below

2ai.Name the habitats of each of specimens E and F

E……………………………………………………………….F……………………………………………………….(2mk)

ii. Name the class to which each of the specimens belong

E……………………………………………………………………F…………………………………………………………(4mk)

bi. State five observable similarities between specimens E and F

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………(5mk)

ii. State four observable differences between specimens E and F

Specimen E	Specimen F

(4mk

ci. Identify the sex of specimen F…………………………………………………………………………………………………..(1mk)

ii. State two reasons for the answer in (ci) above

d. State four observable features that adapt specimen E

e. Construct a food chain at least using three of the given specimens(4mk)

3ai.Identify specimens G, H and I

G………………………………………………………….H……………………………………………………..I…………………………………………(3mk

ii. Make a well labeled diagram (8—10cm) long of the dorsal view of specimen H (8mk)

iii. State four observable differences between specimen H and I

Specimen H	Specimen I

(4mk)

Bi .Identify specimens J, K and L

J………………………………………K……………………………………………………L………………………………………………(3mk)

ii. Name the class to which specimens J, k and L belong

J………………………………………….K……………………………………….L………………………………………………….(3mk)

iii. Give three similarities and two differences between specimens J and L

Similarities……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..(3mk)

Differences

Specimen J	Specimen L

(2mk)

iv. State two agents of dispersal of specimen J, K and L

J…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………K……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… L…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………(3mk)

v.State the placentation of specimens J and L

J…………………………………………………………L…………………………………………………………………..(2mk)

e. Mention two methods of improving local breeds of farm animals. [2 marks]

***SS3* FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING TIME ALLOWED: 3HRS CLASS: S.S 3

OBJECTIVES QUESTION

Investors in a business are mainly interested in the firm’s
Liquidity B. Debt. C. Management. D. Profitability.
One of the characteristics of useful accounting information is.
Profitability. B. Comparability. C. Efficiency. D. Liquidity.
Which of the following item is found on the debit side of a trial balance?
Provision for doubtful debts. B. Discount allowed. C.Discount received. C. Returns outwards.
Which of the following transactions is a revenue expenditure?
Purchase of a plant. B. Purchase of a new engine. C. Construction of office wall. D. Purchase of fuel for vehicle.
Credit notes received are source documents for
Returns Inwards Journal. B. Returns Outwards Journal. C.Purchase journal.

D. Sales Journal.

A document forwarded to a supplier showing amount due for unsatisfactory goods is
Debit Note. B. Credit Note. C.Invoice. D. Waybill.
A claim of a proprietor of a business entity on its assets is
Liabilities. B. Capital. C.Drawings. D. Funds.
The apportionment of cost of a fixed asset to the profit and loss account is termed as
Expense. B. Depreciation. C. Loss. D. Appreciation.
Entries in the purchase journal are transferred to the
Receivable ledger. B.Payable Ledger. C. General ledger. D. Private ledger.
A reduction in price to encourage prompt payment is
Trade discount. B. Quantity discount. C. Cash discount. D.Seasonal discount.

Use the following information to answer question 11 and 12.

Tei Ltd offered 1,560 units of a magazine at ₦60.00 each. Trade discount is 10% and cash discount is 10% within 30 days and 5% within 60 days.

The amount payable if payment is made on the 40^th day is
₦88,920. B. ₦84,240. C. ₦80,028. D. ₦72,025.
The cash discount allowed on the 50^th day is
₦9,360. B. ₦8,424. C. ₦4,680. D.₦4,212.
An amount of Le 2000 received from a customer, Kofi has been credited to another customer, Kofigo’s account. This is an error of
Principle. B.Commission. C.Original entry. D.Complete reversal.
Current assets less current liabilities is
Working capital. B. Capital employed. C. Fluctuating capital. D.Fixed capital.
A debit balance of GH₵ 420 on the Purchases Ledger Control Account means that as at that date
Trade creditors have been overpaid by GH₵ 420.
Trade creditor are owed GH₵ 420
Goods returned to trade creditors amounted to GH₵ 420.
Total supplies from trade creditors amounted to GH₵ 420.
Sales and purchases ledgers are used in a business to keep records of
The owner’s capital and cash transaction. B. Accounts of individual customers and suppliers. C. Current assets and fixed assets. D.Current liabilities and long-term liabilities.
Which of the following activities will increase profits?
Depreciation charges. B. Reduction in provision for doubtful debts.C. Undervalued closing stock. D. Returns inwards

18. The concept that implies that a business will operate for an indefinety periosd of time is A. Accrual concept. B. Going concern concept. C. Business entity concept. D.Periodicity concept.

19. The consistency concept aims at? Ensuring that all expenses are matched against revenue. B. Reduction cost. C. Comparability of accounting records. D.Suppressing profits to be declared.

20.The concept which states that revenue is recognized when goods are sold is?

Realization concept. B.Matching concept. C. Periodicity concept.

D. Going concern concept.

21. Cost of goods sold is calculated as

Opening stock + purchases – closing stock. B. Opening stock + Sales – closing stock. C. Opening stock + Purchases + Closing stock D.Opening stock + sales + Closing stock.

22. The wages of an officer cleaner is classified as

Direct labour cost. B. Direct expenses. C. Factory overheads. D. Administrative overhead.

Use the following information to answer question 23 and 24.

Sales 120,000

Purchases 100,000

Opening stock 10,000

Closing stock 20,000

23.The cost of goods sold is A.Le 120,000. B.Le 110,000. C. Le 90,000.D. Le 30,000.

24. The gross profit or loss is A. Le 30,000 gross profit. B. Le 20,000 gross profit. C.Le 10,000 gross loss. D. Le 30,000 gross loss.

25. The amount set aside out of profits to strengthen the financial position of the business is A. Provision. B. Reserve. C. Depreciation. D. Surplus.

26.A fall in value of a fixed asset due to technological changes is described as

Superfluity. B. Wear and tear. C. Obsolescence. D. Depletion.

27. A credit entry is made in the Plant and Machinery Account for the

Purchase of an additional plant and machinery. B. Sale of plant and machinery.

C. Maintenance of plant and machinery. D.Appreciation of the plant and machinery.

28. In a manufacturing account, royalties paid is

Debited to the trading account. B. Credited to the profit and loss account.

C. Credited to the manufacturing account. D. Debited to the manufacturing account.

29. One of the component of factory overhead is

Raw materials consumed. B. Manufacturing wages. C. Carriage inwards.

D. Depreciation of plant and machinery.

Use the following information to answer question 30 and 31.

GH₵

Direct material used 64,000

Direct labour 30,000

Production overheads 22,000

Work in progress at beginning 9,000

Work in progress at close 14,000

30. Total cost of production is A. GH₵ 94,000. B. GH₵ 106,000. C.GH₵ 111,000.

D. GH₵ 116,000.

31.Prime cost of production is A. GH₵ 64,000. B. GH₵ 94,000. C.GH₵ 111,000

D. GH₵ 116,000.

32. The balance on the sales ledger control account at the end of the accounting year represents total A. Trade debtors at the end of the year. B. Cash sales for the year. C. Credit sales for the year. D. Amount transferred from the sales journal.

Use the following information to answer questions 33 and 34.

01/01/2016 31/12/2016

D D

Trade debtors 80,000 100,000

Trade creditors 30,000 40,000

Stock 70,000 90,000

Cheques received from trade

Debtors in2016 : D 350,000

Payment made to trade

Creditors in 2016 : D 220,000

33.Credit sales for 2016 is A. D 530,000. B.D 370,000. C. D 350,000. D. D 330,000.

34. Credit purchased for 2016 is A. D 290,000. B. D 230,000. C. D 220,000.D. D 210,000.

35. The excess of assets over liabilities of a not-for-profit making organization is

Surplus. B.Deficit. C. Working capital accumulated fund. D. Accumulated fund.

Use the following information to answer question 36 and 37.

Receipt of payment : 31^st December, 2016

₦ ₦

Cash at bank 460 New Equipment 200

Subscription 520 Cleaners wages 540

Donations 500 Stationery 140

Sales of tickets 490 Repairs 110

Entrance fees 670

36.The surplus for the year is A. ₦1,970. B. ₦1,890. C. ₦1,690. D.₦1,390.

37. The total income received for the year is

₦2,640. B. ₦2,180. C. ₦1,890. D. ₦1,690.

38. The parties who are paid last in the event of winding up are

Preference shareholder. B. Debenture shareholder. C. Ordinary shareholder.

D. Trade creditors.

39. An event will not require a change in the profit-sharing ratio of partners in a firm is when A. A partner dies. B. A partner retires. C. A new partner is admitted.

D. Partner assets value appreciated.

Use the following information to answer questions 40 and 41.

₦

Net profit 17,460.

Capital account: Taiwo 50,000.

Obi 40,000

Drawing account: Taiwo 12,000

Obi 10,000

Salary – Obi 1,500

Interest on capital 5

Interest on drawings 4

Profit sharing ratio is 3:2 for

Taiwo and Obi respectively.

40. Taiwo’s share of profit is A. ₦8,960. B. ₦7,404. C. ₦4,936. D. ₦3,296.

41.Obi’s share of profit is A. ₦8,960. B. ₦7,404. C. ₦4,936. D. ₦3,296.

42. The accounting entries for cash realized from the sale of assets on dissolution of partnership is debit. A. Cash Account; credit Partners Capital Account. B. Asset Account; credit Realisation Account. C.Cash Account; credit Realisation Account. D. Realization Account; credit Cash Account.

43. The process of distributing shares to successful applicant is

Allocation. B. Apportionment. C. Allotment. D. Application.

44. Interim dividend paid in the year is A.Debited to the Profit and Loss Account. B.Debited to the Income Surplus Account. C.Credited to the Profit and Loss Account. D.Credited to the Income Surplus Account.

45. The basis of apportionment of insurance on building in departmental account is

Floor space occupied by the department. B.Purchase cost of the building.

C. Value of the building. D. Number of offices in the building.

46. Under the cost method in Branch Accounts, branch gross profit is disclosed in the A. Goods sent to branch account B. branch debtors account C. branch stock account D. branch stock adjustment account

Use the following information to answer question 47 and 48.

Ordinary share capital 70,000

Retained earnings 31,142

Motor vehicle at cost 21,136

Accumulated depreciation motor vehicle 7,109

Furniture and fitting at cost 1,334

Accumulated depreciation-furniture of fittings 1,007

Stock 32,200

Debtors 49,380

Bank 15,953

Creditors 11,329

47. Equity holders fund is A. Le 112.471 B. Le 111,834 C. Le 101,142 D. Le 70,000

48. Net book value of fixed assets is Le 22,480. B. Le 21,136. C. Le 14,354. D. Le 14,027.

49. The authority to incur expenditure in the public sector is

Warrant . B. Vote. C. Budget. D. Voucher.

50. Below-the-line item in public sector accounting means such an item is

Not budgeted for in the current fiscal year.
Budgeted for in the current fiscal year.
To be carried forward to the next fiscal year.
Less than what is budgeted for.

SECTION B: ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

1a. What is a source document?

b. List six types of source document

c. State three uses of subsidiary books

2a. State three reasons for preparing a bank reconciliation statement

b. What is a bank reconciliation statement?

c. State two limitations of accounting information

3a. Explain the following terms used in non profit making organizations

I. Accumulated fund II. Subscription in arrears III. Receipt and payment

iv. Income and expenditure account v. Entrance fees

b. Distinguish between shares and debentures

4a. List six users of accounting information

b. State the formula and the use of each of the following ratios:

I. Quick ratio II. Net profit margin III. Total assets turnover iv.Creditor payment period(in days)

SECTION C

ANSWER QUESTION FIVE AND ANY OTHER TWO QUESTIONS

5. The trial balance of Okoli for year ended 31st December, 2016 was provided as follows :

# #

Capital. 630,000

Drawings. 69,000

Opening stock. 300,000

Purchases and sales 1,050,000. 1,200,000

Returns. 15,000. 18,600

Debtors and Creditors. 29,400. 21,000

Provision for doubtful debts. 2,400

Salaries. 90,000

Rates. 18,000

Insurance. 93,000

Telephone. 3,000

Furniture at cost. 120,000

Machinery at cost. 90,000

Provision for depreciation

Furniture. 30,000

Machinery. 15,000

Bad debt. 600

Bank balance. 39,000

Total. 1,917,000. 1,917,000

Additional information :

a. Closing stock. 360,000

b. Rates prepaid. 1,500

c. Telephone outstanding 660

d. Provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 10% of debtors

e. Depreciation on furniture at 10% on book value

f. Depreciation on machinery at 20% on cost

Required : prepare trading,profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December 2016 and a Balance sheet as at that date

6. The trial balance of Ayomide Enterprises failed to agree. The difference was entered in the suspense account

The following errors were later detected:

I. A sum of #1000 received from Saka has not been posted to his account

II. The sales day book was undercast by #560

III. Return outwards books was overcast by #140

iv. Discount received, #410 from Damilola had been correctly entered in the cash book but not posted to Damilola account .

v. Goods worth #750 returned to a supplier was recorded in his personal account as #570

Vi. Discount allowed was overcast by #310

vii. Discount received column in the cash book has been overcast by #400

You are required to prepare :

a. Journal entries to correct the errors

b. Suspense account

7. Favour, Grace and David are partners engaged in retail business, sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2:1:2 respectively.

The following are the details of the extract from their books as at 31st January 2013

Favour. Grace. David

Capital. 50,000. 45,000. 60,000

Current account. 20,800. ( 5000) 8,500

Additional information :

I. The firms sundry assets were valued at 431,000

II. The firms was cash strapped and on 1/07/2013,Grace advanced a loan of 100,000 to the partnership at the rate of 5% per annum. Interest was payable six monthly and was to be credited to his account

III. Favour and David were to receive salaries of 25,000 per annum each

iv. The profit for the partnership before charging loan interest was 158,000 for the year ended 31st December 2013. The loan was not repayable until after the year 2016

You are required to prepare :

a. Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ended 31st December 2013

b. Partners current account in a columnar form.

8. On 31st December, 2016,the bank column of the cash book of Aminata enterprise showed a debit balance of D48,500. However, bank statement showed a credit balance of D54,900 as on the same date.

A detailed comparison of entries revealed the following:

a. Customer cheques amounting to D8,450 had not been credited by the bank as at 31/12/2016

b. Cheques amounting to D8,850 had not been presented for payment as at 31/12/2016

c. Bank charges of D1,000 and interest on investment of D2,500 collected by the banker appeared only in bank statement

d. On the 30/12/2016,there was a wrong credit of D3,500 in the bank statement

e. Jesse enterprise,a customer, had paid into the bank directly a sum of D3,000 on 29th

December 2016.this had not been entered in the cash book.

f. A cheque for D2,000 received from Jallo enterprise a customer which was deposited had

been returned unpaid. This had been entered in the cash book

Prepare :

a. Adjusted cash book

b. Bank reconciliation statement as at 31st December 2016.

9. Chidubem social club presented the following statements for the year ended 31st December 2016. Chidubem social club

Receipt and payment account

Le. Le

Balance b/f 5,700. Maintenance of building 12,600

Subscription 54,500.Maintenance of ground. 6,400

Bar sales. 13,040 Prizes for fun fair. 8,400

Fun fair proceeds.4,300 Bar purchases. 8,000

Donations. 2,000 Bar expenses. 2,000

Life membership

dues. 5,400. Funeral expenses. 10,200

Sale of magazines 12,560. Staff salaries. 30,000

General expenses 3,600

Donations to hospital 12,500

Printing of magazines 5,300

Balance c/d. 11,000

97,500. 97,500

Additional information

01/01/16. 31/12/16

Le. Le

Subscription in arrears. 3,900. 7,400

Subscription in advance. 8,400. 6,300

Bar stock. 1,500. 2,200

Bar debtors. 2,630. 3,930

Bar expenses owing. 540. 370

Five new members had not paid membership dues of Le300 each for the year

You are required to prepare for Chidubem social club for the year ended 31st December 2016

a. Subscription account , b. Bar trading account

c. Income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st December 2016

***SS3* LITERATURE IN ENGLISH MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: LIT-IN-ENGLISH TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS

CLASS: S.S 3

SECTION A: Answer all the questions in this section.

PART 1 (PAPER 1 AND 2)

GENERAL QUESTIONS ON LITERARY APPRECIATION

1. A better remark intended to wound the feelings is

A. A satire. B. an illusion C. a sarcasm D. an ambiguity.

2. ‘’She waited for him for a thousand years’ illustrates

A. Euphemism. B. hyperbole. C.assonance D. ellipsis

3. A literary device which expresses meaning in its direct opposite

A. Metaphor B. paradox. C. parody D. irony.

4. ‘’They also serve who only stand and wait’’illustrates

A. An epigram B. a synecdoche C. a simile D. an antithesis.

5. Pick the odd item out of the options listed below.

A. Verse B. Stanza C. Rhythm D. Dialogue

6. In drama, ‘denouement’ is the same as

A. Resolution B. climax C. anti-climax. D. conflict.

7. Which of the following is NOT true of a ballard?

A. Which were originally sung.

B. They are mostly part of oral tradition

C. They tell a popular story.

D. They are written in iambic metre.

Read the extract and answer Question 8-12

My heart leaps up when I behold

A rainbow in the sky;

So was it when my life began,

So as it now that I am a man,

So be it when I shall grow,

The child is father of the man.

8. The mood of the poem is that of

A. Sorrow B. elation C. anxiety D. sarcasm

9. The rhyme scheme of the poem is

A. ab ac ac. B. ac bc ca. C. ab ca cc D. ab ac bc

10. The subject of the extract is

A. Childishness. B. the adverse effects of the rainbow on man C. the unchanging cycle of nature D. the adverse effects of old age

11. The literary device used in line 1 is

A. Simile B. alliteration C. litotes D. personification

12. The literary device used in line 6 is an example of

A. Synecdoche B. irony C. paradox D. hyperbole.

13. ‘’Forty hands descended on the devilish head’’ illustrates

A. Epigram B. synecdoche C. metonymy D. allegory.

14. Pick the odd item out of the options listed below:

A. Sonnet B. epic C. allusion D. ode

15. A deliberate violation of the rules of versification constitutes

A. Imperfect rhyme B. poetic license C. verbal irony D. comic relief

16. A praise poem is

A. A dirge B. an epic C. a ball D. an ode

17. Lines of regular recurrence in a poem constitutes

A. An alliteration B. a refrain C. an assonance D. a theme

18. An individual who acts, appears or is referred to as playing a part in a literary work is a

A. Villain B. character C. clown D. narrator

19. A regular group of lines in poetry constitutes.

A. Stanza B. rhythm C. verse D. metre

20. ‘’A black beautiful brilliant bride’’ is an example of

A. Alliteration B. assonance C. onomatopoeia D. pun.

PART II

UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY

READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER QUESTIONS 21 TO 25.

Jame’s heart beat madly as he and Alice approach the beeping metal detector at the entrance. The oblivious swinging door hugged the couple with inviting, outstretched arms and ushered them into the lobby in genial welcome. The receptionist asked James to surrender any valuable items he had; if they got lost, management would be liable.

James looked at Alice, his wife returned his guiltstriken, dubious look with an innocent, trusting smile. What would he do if jewels went missing? How would he explain it to himself? What would he have gained by his mischief? What had come over James so shamelessly to decide to rob his own wife? The swindled woman stood innocently beside her unrepentant husband as he took the key to their room with hands that shook slightly.

21. The expression door hugged the couple illustrates (a) euphemism (b) personification (c) litotes (d) onomatopoeia

22. The narrative technique is (a) first person (b) stream of consciousness (c) third person (d) interior monologue.

23. How would he explain it to himself? Exemplifies (a) hyperbole (b) parallelism (c) rhetorical question (d) understatement.

24. The writer’s attitude towards James is one of (a) sympathy (b) distrust (c) support (d) disapproval.

25. The setting is (a) the couple’s home (b) a modern hotel (c) the airport (d) a school.

Read the poems and answer questions 26 to 30

Poison ivy came up like a rose

In red and thorny garb

I look, liked and did dare touch.

My pals my avid touch espied

With green and frosty eyes

I should’ve only looked, and not leapt,

For away and over my rising moon she flew

On clipped wings of my dream

Now a song-filled air pocket of serenades.

A love’s wretch, my dream is a hornbill

Fightless and tottering.

My dreams remains a dream still

Now my dream is a locked-up serenade.

26. The mood of the persona is one of (a) contempt (b) hilarity (c) despondency (d) hopefulness.

27. The theme of the poem is (a) love in the garden (b) the acceptance (c) the rising moon (d) unrequited love.

28. The envy of the persona’s friends is expressed in the (a) avid touch (b) clipped wings (c) green and frosty eyes (d) song-filled air pocket.

29. Line 2 is in iambic (a) trimether (b) tetrameter (c) pentameter (d) hexameter.

30. The last line illustrates (a) parallelism (b) contrast (c)hyperbole (d) metaphor.

SECTION B

Answer all the questions in this section.

WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE: Othello

Read the extract and answer questions 31 – 35.

So opposite to marriage that she shunned

The wealthy, curled darlings of our nation.

Would ever have, t’incur a general mock,

Run from he guardage to the sooty bossom

Of such a thing as thou – to fear, not to delight?

(Act I, Scene Two, lines 66 – 70)

31. The speaker is (a) Othello (b) Duke (c) Brabantio (d) Lago.

32. The speaker is addressing (a) Cassio (b) Brabantio (c) Roderigo (d) Othello.

33. “Sooty bossom” is a metaphor for (a) a black goat (b) Othello (c) a breastplate (d) Lago

34. “Run from her guardage” refers to (a) Emilia (b) Desdemona (c) Bianca (d) Cassio’s mistress.

35. The setting is (a) another street outside the Sagittary (b) A chancil chamber (c) A seaport in Cyprus (d) The Citadel.

Read the extract and answer questions 36 – 40.

For when my outward action doth demonstrate

The native act and fingure of my heart.

In complement extern, its not long after

But I will wear my heart upon my sleeve

For daws to peck at;

( Act I, Scene Two, lines 58 – 62)

36. The speakers is (a) Brabantio (b) Cassio (c) Gratiano (d) Lago.

37. The addressee is (a) Othello (b) Duke (c) Roderigo (d) Montano.

38. What has happened to the speaker? (a) He has been fined (b) He has fallen out of favour (c) He has been denied promotion (d) He has lost his job.

39. The underlined expression shows that the speakers is (a) Jovial (b) Insincere (c) Polite (d) Unfriendly.

40. The setting is (a) a street in Venice (b) a street in Cyprus (c) outside the citadel (d) a court before the citadel.

Read the extract and answer questions 41 – 45.

Othellio: Why, how now, ho? From whence ariseth this?

Are we turned Turks, and to ourselves do that

Which heaven hath forbid the Ottomites?

For Christian shame put by this barbarous brawil!

He that stir next to carve for his own rage

Holds his soul light; he dies upon his motion.

Silence that dreadful bell. It frights the isle

From her propriety. What is the matter, masters?

Honest lago, that looks dead with grieving,

Speak. Who began this? On thy love, I charge thee.

Lago: I do not know.

(Act II, Scene Three, lines 155 – 165)

41. Othello is brought to the scene because (a) lago is drunk (b) a bell has been rung (c) people are fighting (d) Cassio has stabbed Montano.

42. The underlined expression refers to the (a) intervention of the storm in the war (b) return of the victorious army to Cyprus (c)killing of Roderigo by lago (d) stabbing of Montano by Cassio

43. In “Who began this” this refers to the (a) theft (b) war (c) bell (d) brawl.

44. To Othello, lago is (a) sincere (b) a negligent guard (c) untrustworthy (d) a loyal senator.

45. The major consequence of the brawl is that (a) Montano is killed (b) Roderigo demands his money back (c) Cassio is dismissed as Othello’s lieutenant (d) lago is given charge of the city.

Read the extract and answer questions 46 – 50.

Speaker: I durst, my lord, to wager she is honest,

Lay down my soul at stake. If you think other,

Remove your thought. It doth abuse your bosom.

If any wretch have put this in your head,

Let heaven requite it with the serpent’s curse,

For if she be not honest, chaste, and true,

There’s no man happy. The purest of their wives

Is foul as slander.

(Act IV, Scene Two, lines 12 – 19)

46. The speaker is (a) Lago (b) Desdemona (c) Cassio (d) Emilia.

47. The speaker is addressing (a) Othello (b) Montano (c) Duke (d) Roderigo.

48. The speech is in response to (a) the allegation that the speaker has lied about Desdemona (b) lago’s disdain for Othello (c) Othello’s suspicion that Cassio and Desdemona are lovers (d) Brabantio’s rejection of his daughter.

49. The line remove your thought. It doth abuse your bosom is best paraphrased (a) You are not wise (b) Do not kill yourself. (c) You are ungrateful. (d) You demean yourself by thinking so

50. The character being spoken of is described as (a) unhappy (b) virtuous (c) generous (d) wretched.

SS3 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

THEORY

NOVEL

AMMA DARKO: Faceless

1. Examine the significance of Fofo’s visit to Odarley in the novel.

2. Consider Baby ‘T’ as a victim of social injustice.

BAYO ADEBOWALE: Lonely Days

3. How Is Ajumobi portrayed in the novel?

4. Comment on the attitude of the people of Kufi towards superstition.

RICHARD WRIGHT: Native son

5. Examine Mrs. Dalton’s blindness as a metaphor for race relations in the novel.

6. Comment on the use of irony in the novel.

HORACE WALPOLE: The Castle of Otranto

7. Justly the view that the novel presents a struggle between good and evil.

8. To what extent can we say that Manfred’s downfall is caused by his lust for power?

PAPER 3 THEORY

POETRY AND DRAMA

SECTION A: AFRICAN DRAMA

Answer one question only from this section.

Dele Charley: The Blood of a stranger

9. Consider the view that the play exposes the colonialist exploitation of Africa.

10. Examine the role of kindo as a warlord in the play.

Frank Ogodo Ogeche: Harvest of corruption

11. Comment on Aloho as a victim of circumstance in the play.

12. Discuss the role of Chief Maladu Ade – Amaka in the play.

SECTION B: NON – AFRICAN DRAMA

Anwer one question only from this section.

Lorraine Hansberry: A Raisin in the Sun

13. What impression do you form of Mama’s character in the play?

14. Consider the importance of the check in the play.

OLIVER GOLDSMITH: She Stoops to Conquer

15. Examine the use of dramatic irony in the play.

16. Assess the character of Mrs. Hardcastle in the play.

SECTION C: AFRICAN POETRY

Answer one question only from this section.

17. Discuss the clash of cultures of Okara’s “Piano and Drum”.

18. Examine the persona’s view of ageing in “The Piano of growing Older”.

SECTION D: NON – AFRICAN POETRY

Answer one question only from this section.

19. Comment on the poet’s attitude to nature in Frost’s “Birches”.

20. Examine the theme of beauty in the poem “Shall I compare Thee to a Summer’s Day?”.

***SS3* GOVERNMENT MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: GOVERNMENT TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS CLASS: S.S 3

1.The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is made up of how many judges?

(A) 20(B)15(C)25(D)30

2.As at 1979, how many states did we have in Nigeria (A) 12(B)19(C)21(D)30

3.The Security Council of UNO is made up of how many members all together(A)15(B)10(C)5(D)20

4.In 1979 Presidential election, the National Party of Nigeria(NPN) won how many gubernatorial election?(A) 3(B)5(C)7(D)9

5.The following are merits of separation of powers except(A)Abuse of power(B)Freedom and liberty(C)Stable political system(D)Absence of dominance

6.Which of the following is not a merit of checks and balances?(A)Prevents excessive use of power(B)Has respect for human rights(C)Encourages the use of veto power(D)Prevents dictatorship

7.Representative government is alternatively called(A)Rule of law(B)Indirect democracy(C)Separation of powers(D)Constitutional democracy

8.A constitution is a(A)Set of regulations and customs(B)Body of doctrine and principles(C)Set of principles and customs(D)Body of rules, regulations and conventions

9.A feature of a rigid constitution is that it requires(A)Amendment by the judiciary(B)One-third majority for its amendment(C)Special amendment procedures(D)(The votes of the electorate for its amendment

10.A characteristic of a federal system of government is that power is(A)Shared between the central and the unit governments(B)Shared between the components units of government(C)Held by the national government(D)Head by the state government

11.In a federal system of government, education and health are examples of(A)Separation of power(B)Reserved power(C)Concurrent powers(D)Exclusive powers

12.Which of the following is not a function of the judiciary?(A)Settlement of disputes(B)Making of law order(C)Interpretation of law(D)Protection of rights

13.Who was the Prime Minister during the Yoruba pre-colonial political system(A)Waziri(B)Bashorun(C)Are Onakankafo(D)Aremo

14.Slander limits a citizen’s freedom of(A)Expression(B)Movement(C)Association(D)Religion

15.Which of the following bodies has the right to change the laws of the country?(A)Judiciary(B)Ombudsman(C)legislature(D)Executive

16.All the following are sources of revenue of a political party except to(A)Payment of dues(B)Donations(C)Custom duties(D)Fund raising

17.Party manifesto is important in the following ways except to(A)Evaluate the party (B)Limit choice(C)Attract people(D)Guide the party

18.Coalition government can be defined as parties coming together(A)To appoint a leader(B)To form a government(C)With a common manifesto(D)To oppose the government

19.Which of the following West African countries practised a one party system? (A)Benin (B)Nigeria (C)Ghana(D)Liberia

20.In limited franchise, restriction on voting can be based on (A)Height (B)Property (C)Strength (D)Exposure

21.Which of the following is a limitation to Universal Adult Suffrage? (A)Wealth (B)Age (C)Race (D)Sex

22.Which of the following is an example of a general election?(A)Bye selection(B)Presidential election(C)Local election(D)Student union election

23.The purpose of an election is to(A)Allow people to participate in choosing their leaders (B)Provide social amenities for the electorate(C)Give political education to the rich,(D)Allow the counting of votes in public

24.Universal Adult Suffrage is popular because it(A)Allows for equal political representation(B)Allows for greater participation(C)Encourages for multi party system(D)Ensures equal performance of all political parties

25.Which of the following is not a factor that promotes democratic electoral system?(A)Political consciousness(B)Periodic election(C)Up to date electoral register(D)Popularity of the governor

26.A factor that could make elections to be free and fair is the(A)Existence of dependent electoral commission(B)Adoption of a flexible constitution(C)Opportunity for people to vote twice(D)Registration of eligible voters

27.The body responsible for conducting and supervising elections in West African countries is called(A)Ombudsman(B)Electoral commission(C)Election observers(D)Constituent Assembly

28.Which of the following is not a problem of an electoral commission in West Africa?(A)Electoral malpractices(B)Inadequate personnel(C)Inadequate funds(D)Registration of voters

29.Which of the following is not an aim of pressure groups?(A)Contesting election(B)Agitating for interests(C)Influencing government decisions(D)Educating their members

30.A pressure group formed only by teachers is(A)A promotional group(B)An occupational group(C)A religious group(D)An economic group

31.Neutrality in the civil service means that(A)The government can seek or replace top civil servant(B)Officials need to defend the budget in parliament(C)Civil servants should be loyal to the government and non-partisan(D)Officials can only be removed from office due to I’ll health.

32.Which constitution introduced Federalism in Nigeria (A)Clifford (B)Lyttleton (C)Richard

(D) Macpherson

33.An advantage of public corporations in West Africa is(A)Creation of exposure(B)Political interference(C)Provision of employment(D)Provision of all the services needed

34.The Economic and Social Council of UNO comprises of how many members(A)23(B) 25(C)27(D)29

35.Collection of rates is a source of revenue to (A)Civil servants(B)Public corporations(C)Local authorities(D)Central government

36.one of this country is not an ECOWAS member(A)Cameroun(B)Togo(C)Ghana(D)Cape Verde

37.The Secretariat of OPEC is situated in(A)New York(B)Los Angeles(C)Vienna(D)Berlin

38.The Liberation committee organ of OAU has its headquarter in (A)Tanzania (B)Togo (C)Ghana(D)Liberia.

39.The following were features of the French policy of Assimilation except(A)Centralised administration(B)Recognition of chieftaincy institution(C)Limited education(D)Indignant Policy

40.Richard Constitution was significant because it(A)Introduced elective principle in Nigeria(B)Introduced Federalism in Nigeria(C)Introduced Bi-Cameral legislature in Nigeria(D)Intriduced Regionalism in Nigeria.

41.Foreign policy refers to the(A)Policy made by a foreign country(B)Policy made by a country(C)Principles that govern a country when it is at war(D)Principles that govern a state’s international behaviour

42.Which of the following is a factor for the adoption of a unitary system of government in some West African countries?(A)Vast territories(B)Small territories(C)Abundant resources(D)Heterogeneous culture

43.Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the security council of the United Nations Organisation(UNO)?(A)Germany(B)Japan(C)Canada(D)Russia

44.The Commonwealth is(A)An economic organisation for the Caribbeans(B)A political organization formed during the First World War(C)Made up of all independent ex- colonies of Britain(D)Made up of independent European countries

46.The Nigeria 1960 independence constitution of Nigeria adopted which system of government (A) Republican(B)Parliamentary(C)Presidential(D)Unitary

47.A commonwealth member that has no colonial link with United Kingdom is(A)Nigeria(B)Ghana(C)Liberia(D)Mozambique

48.The meetings of the Commonwealth of Nations are held once every(A)Six years(B)Five years(C)three years(D)Two years

49.The ECOWAS Fund for Cooperation, Compensation and Development is located in(A)Togo(B)Nigeria(C)The Gambia(D)Liberia

50.The organ responsible for investigating internal disputes in the United Nations Organisation (UNO) is the(A)General Assembly(B)Security council(C)Secretariat(D)Economic and Social Council

THEORY

ATTEMPT SIX QUESTIONS IN ALL

Answer THREE questions from section A and THREE questions from section B

SECTION A.

1.List and explain five types of elections

2.Define Capitalism

B.State two advantages and two disadvantages of capitalism

3.What is fundamental human rights?

B. Explain three factors that can limit fundamental human rights

4.Explain five functions of legislature in a modern democracy

5.In what five ways can elections be made free and fair in a Nigeria? Explain

6.What is democracy?

B. Outline four conditions for its successful operation

SECTION B

7.Outline five functions of the Emir during the Hausa Fulani pre-colonial system

8.State four merits and four demerits of Clifford Constitution of 1922

9.Give five differences between the 1979 Constitution and 1963 Constitution of Nigeria

10.State three functions of the General Assembly of U.N.O

B. Highlight Four achievements of UNO

11.Identify five challenges facing the Commonwealth of Nations

12.Highlight four achievements of the UPN

B. State three problems of the pre-independence political parties in Nigeria

13.What is indirect rule system?

B. Explain four reasons for the adoption of indirect rule in Nigeria

***SS3* FOOD AND NUTRITION MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: FOOD & NUTRITION TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS CLASS: S.S 3

Answer all questions in this section

The best flour for bread is _____ (a) hard wheat flour (b) soft wheat flour (c) self-raising flour (d) composite flour
An example of a meat dish is _____ (a) kedgeree (b) croquette (c) yam ball (d) sausage roll
In order to prevent food poisoning, a caterer should _____ (a) store food in its can after opening (b) wash hand thoroughly before handling food (c) keep left over food in the cupboard (d) return thawed food to the freezer
A suitable method of preparing sponge cake is _____ (a) rubbing- in method (b) creaming method (c) whisking method (d) melting method
Which of the following statements are true of beverages?

I. they refresh and quench thirst II. They are nourishing III. They are stimulants IV. They protect the body

(a) II, III and IV only (b) I, III and IV only (c) I, II and IV only (d) I, II and III only

When choking occurs, food is trapped in the _____ (a) trachea (b) diaphragm (c) oesophagus (d) intestines
A shopping list is a/ the _____ (a) list of items and their prices (b) guide used when purchasing items (c) list of ingredients and their quantities (d) total number of items to buy
A disadvantage of convenience foods is that they _____ (a) expire quickly (b) are processed foods (c) are expensive (d) have prolonged cooking time
In order to save time and energy during cooking, the appropriate material for a sauce pan is _____ (a) earth (b) enamel (c) stainless (d) galvanized iron
Addition of sugar to fruits improves the _____ (a) texture (b) colour (c) flavor (d) appearance
Which of the following fruits is the least source of vitamin C? (a) orange (b) banana (c) mango (d) guava
Caffeine in coffee gives a/ an _____ (a) satiety effect (b) aromatic effect (c) stimulating effect (d) sedative effect
An example of ready- to- serve convenience food is _____ (a) instant tea (b) canned fish (c) coffee (d) cake mix
Foods prepared from unwholesome ingredients with the aim of maximizing profit are said to be _____ (a) adulterated (b) misbranded (c) enriched (d) fortified
Which of the following food items has been preserved by a combination of salting and smoking? (a) tuna flakes (b) fermented fish (c) stock fish (d) kippered herrings
Rechauffe is best described as _____ (a) economy of cooking (b) leftover food (c) leftover cookery (d) warming food
Dry, canned and bottled foods should be kept in a _____ (a) refrigerator (b) cupboard (c) warmer (d) freezer
In the kitchen, tea towels are used for _____ (a) wiping washed dishes (b) holding hot sauce pans (c) lining serving trays (d) wiping dirty surfaces
The best cookware for rockbuns is a _____ (a) loaf tin (b) cake pan (c) baking sheet (d) patty tin
A factor to be considered when selecting meat for grilling is the _____ (a) water content (b) cut (c) fat content (d) colour
A kitchen sink that is blocked by grease should be cleaned with _____ (a) sulphuric acid (b) soapy water (c) boiling water (d) sink plunger
When purchasing fresh fish, an indication of quality is its _____ (a) deep sunken eyes (b) flabby flesh (c) limp tail (d) reddish gills
During cooking, heat is transferred to a saucepan by _____ (a) conduction (b) convection and radiation (c) radiation and conduction (d) radiation
Strengthening of bones and teeth is a function of calcium and _____ (a) sodium (b) phosphorus (c) iron (d) iodine
Comparison of prices and values of items before shopping enables consumers to _____ (a) buy on impulse (b) buy cheaper items (c) spend wisely (d) buy in bulk
The most important factor to consider when preparing a family budget is the _____ (a) money available (b) food in season (c) size of the kitchen (d) storage facility
What is the proportion of fat to flour in short crust pastry? (a) ¹/₂: 1 (b) 1: ¹/₂ (c) 1: 1 (d) 2: 1
Fat is used to shorten baked flour products in order to make them _____ (a) soft and shiny (b) soft and crumbly (c) crispy and flappy (d) crispy and shiny
In cookery, the function of flavouring and condiments is to _____

I. improve the nutritive value of food II. Act as preservatives III. Improve flavor of food IV. Make food presentation easier

(a) I and III only (b) I, II and III only (c) II, III and IV only (d) II and IV only

Short crust pastry is best made from _____ (a) oat flour (b) maize flour (c) wheat flour (d) rice flour
On a formal invitation card, ‘R. S. V. P.’ is written at the _____ (a) upper left (b) upper right (c) center left (d) bottom right
The most effective materials for cleaning aluminum pans are _____ (a) wire sponge and soap (b) sponge and sand (c) steel wool and soap (d) scouring pad and detergent
Classes of fish include _____ fish (a) white, oily and shelly (b) dry, fresh and shelly (c) bony, dry and white (d) bony, fresh and oily
A child with poor teeth formation and knocked knees is deficient in _____ (a) calcium and vitamin K (b) iodine and vitamin D (c) calcium and vitamin D (d) iodine and vitamin K
First class proteins are of high biological importance because they _____ (a) contain essential amino acids (b) repair worn out tissues (c) are of high nutritive value (d) contain essential nutrients
A conservative method of egg cookery is _____ (a) boiling (b) frying (c) poaching (d) stewing
An example of table linen is _____ (a) food cover (b) tray cloth (c) tea towel (d) dish cloth
The main aim of blanching vegetables before freezing is to _____ (a) improve texture (b) reduce cooking time (c) maintain colour (d) stop enzymatic action
The enzyme that converts starch in food to maltose is _____ (a) pepsin (b) ptyalin (c) renin (d) trypsin
Flaky pastry becomes tough and hard when _____ (a) cooking time is prolonged (b) cooking time is short (c) insufficient water is added (d) too much water is added
In bread making, yeast cells are destroyed by the addition of excess _____ (a) sugar (b) milk (c) water (d) salt
A dish that requires low oven temperature while cooking is _____ (a) rice pudding (b) fruit cake (c) fruit scone (d) milk pudding
When consumed, which of the following dishes takes longer to digest? (a) rice pudding (b) groundnut soup and boiled rice (c) vegetable soup and fufu (d) moimoi/ oleleh
Which of the following methods is most suitable for cooking the sirloin of beef? (a) roasting (b) braising (c) boiling (d) broiling
The nutrient that spares protein from being used for energy generation in the body is _____ (a) vitamins (b) mineral salts (c) carbohydrates (d) water
Prevention of dry skin is a function of _____ (a) vitamin D (b) vitamin C (c) vitamin B (d) vitamin A
Which of the following vegetables would lose most of its nutrients when boiled? (a) carrot (b) tomato (c) cabbage (d) potato
A suitable festive lunch for children is _____ (a) fish stew and boiled potatoes (b) fried chicken and jollof rice (c) okro soup and fufu (d) fish stew and cassava pottage
Ascorbic acid refers to _____ (a) vitamin D (b) vitamin E (c) vitamin B (d) vitamin C
Which of the following points is the most important factor when planning meals? (a) knowledge of food value (b) personal likes and dislikes (c) cooking facilities (d) cooking method to be used
Before the nutrients can perform their various functions in the body, they must be _____ (a) balanced (b) taken with other chemicals (c) consumed, digested and absorbed (d) maintained
Movable utensils used for preparing food in the kitchen are _____ (a) fixed equipment (b) measuring equipment (c) small equipment (d) large equipment
Which of the following is not necessarily considered when planning a suitable kitchen floor? (a) non slippery (b) durability (c) ease of care (d) colour
Which of the following foods is required for a cock tail party? (a) main meals (b) finger foods (c) appetizers (d) desserts
An example of milk product is _____ (a) kedgeree (b) filled milk (c) rice pudding (d) cheese
The principle which involves removing moisture in food preservation is _____ (a) freezing (b) dehydration (c) pickling (d) jam making
The effective utilization of nutrients in the body can be prevented by _____ (a) malnutrition (b) food diseases (c) toxin (d) anti- nutrients
The transfer of heat in a liquid medium is _____ (a) conduction (b) convection (c) radiation (d) evaporation
Funnel, colander and toaster are _____ (a) baking equipment (b) cleaning equipment (c) mixing equipment (d) kitchen equipment
Translucency test indicates the presence of _____ (a) proteins (b) oils (c) starch (d) carbohydrates

Theory

Answer 4 questions in this section

List 4 characteristics of alcoholic beverages

(b) State 4 methods of preparing coffee/ tea

State 4 reasons for preparing local dishes and drinks

(b) State 3 advantages of the use of a recipe

State 4 functions of fats and oils

(b) State 4 functions of vitamin C

State 3 factors to consider when choosing fresh: (i) vegetables (ii) fruits (iii) fish

(b) Mention 4 types of kitchen linen

Differentiate between the types of vegetarians

(b) State 5 guidelines for preparing meals for an invalid

***SS3* GEOGRAPHY MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY TIME ALLOWED: 2HRS CLASS: S.S 3

Section A

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

The scale of the map is approximately. (a) 1:10 000 (b) 1:25 000 (c) 1:200 000 (d) 1:50 000 (e) 1: 100 000
What is the approximate straight line distance between Tiki and Tanko? (a) 20. 0km (b) 27. 0km (c) 36. 0km (d) 46. 0km (e) 16. 0km
The approximate bearing of Joma from Tanko is (a) 45⁰ (b) 50⁰ (c) 65⁰ (d) 295⁰ (e) 315⁰
Which of the following settlements is not visible from Tanko? (a) Kevu (b) Magu (c) Bore (d) Wazo (e) Joma
Which of the following is likely to be the most important railway town? (a) Magu (b) Tanko (c) Wazo (d) Gomi (e) Kiti
Which of the following settlements is located on a col? (a) Kofi (b) Gomi (c) Joma (d) Magu (e) Basa
The rivers of Tanko district (a) flow into the ocean (b) are characterized by meanders (c) have their sources in the central highlands (d) have radial drainage patterns (e) are seasonal rivers
The main occupation of the inhabitants of Joma area is likely to be (a) fishing (b) lumbering (c) mining (d) animal rearing (e) pottery-making
There are few settlements north and south of Kofi because (a) it is mainly on grassland (b) there are no railways (c) nobody wants to live there (d) it is a highland area with steep slopes (e) there are no roads
The cultivation of sugar cane is most likely to take place (a) north of Wazo (b) in the area around Kevu (c) south-east of Wazo (d) around Lori and environs (e) in the area around Kagora
Which of the following statements is not true of the solar system? (a) the rays of the sun gives energy to the system (b) all the planets rotate round the sun (c) all the planets have their orbits round the sun (d) the planets revolve around the sun (e) the sun is at the centre of the system
In the southern hemisphere, the autumnal equinox occurs on (a) 21^st March (B) 21^st June (c) 23^rd September (d) 22^nd December (e) 4^th January
The layer of earth found immediately beneath the crust is called (a) hydrosphere (b) lithosphere (c) mesosphere (d) barysphere (e) core
“They are formed from the accumulation of materials derived from other rocks which have been cemented together”. This is a description of (a) metamorphic rocks (b) Plutonic rocks (c) organically formed sedimentary rocks (d) colvanic rocks (e) mechanically formed sedimentary rocks
Which of the following is a volcanic plateau? (a) kukuruku (b) Terra Rosa (b) Deccan (b) Graben (e) Atlas
The overriding portion of the thrust fold is termed (a) a simplefold (b) an overfold (c) a syncline (d) a nappe (e) an anticline
Depositional plains refer to all the following except (a) alluvial plains (b) structural plains (c) deltaic Plains (d) flood plains (e) drift plains
When the roof of a coastal cave collapses, it forms (a) a doline (b) an estuary (c) a gorge (d) a lagoon (e) a geo
During wave actions, the rush of water onshore is called (a) longshore drift (b) swash (c) undertow (d) backwash (e) tidal current
The Red Sea has a higher degree of salinity than the Mediterranean Sea because the former (a) is smaller in size than the latter (b) is located in a rift valley while the latter is located in a geosynclines (c) receives a smaller amount of fresh water than the latter (d) is linked with the Indian ocean while the latter is linked with the Atlantic (e) is nearer a hot desert than the latter
Most warm ocean currents flow (a) on the eastern side of continents (b) towards the equator (c) in the Pacific ocean (d) on the western side of continents (e) towards the high latitudes
Which of the following combinations of factors influences atmospheric pressure? I. latitude II. Soil moisture III. Altitude IV. Temperature (a) I,II and III only (b) I,II and IV only (c) I, III and IV only (d) I and II only (e)II, III and IV only
Which of the following local winds are hot? I. Sirocco II. Leveene III. Mistral IV. Bora (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only (d) II and IV only (e) III and IV only
Which of the following combinations of factors influences atmospheric pressure? I. latitude II. Soil moisture III. Altitude IV. Temperature (a) I,II and III only (b) I, II and IV only (c) I,III and IV only (d) I and II only (e) II, III and IV only
When you observe the wind vane, the head of the arrow shows the (a) speed of the wind (b) direction to which the wind is blowing (c) duration of the wind (d) weight of the wind (e) direction from which the wind is blowing
Use the table below to answer questions 26 and 27.

	J	F	M	A	M	J	J	A	S	O	N	D
TEMPERATURE(^OC)	24	24	27	28	30	29	27	27	27	28	27	25
RAINFALL (mm)	2	2	0	0	18	505	610	368	269	48	10	0

The annual range of temperature is (a) 3⁰C (b) 4⁰C (c) 5⁰C (d) 6⁰C (e) 7⁰C

The above climatic data refers to the (a) warm temperate climate (b) equatorial climate (c) savannah climate (d) cool temperate climate (e) desert climate
Which of the following least explains the advantages of Koppen’s classification of climates over the Greek classification? (a) There are five major divisions in Koppen’s classification (b) the Greek classification is rather too generalized (c) Koppen’s classification is based on both rainfall and temperature whereas the Greek classification is based on temperature only (d) The values of rainfall and temperature used by Koppen’s are based on the requirement of certain plants (e) The Koppen’s classification was developed more recently than the Greek classification
A soil profile refers to the (a) gradient of the soil (b) slope of the soil (c) vertical section of the soil (d) mineral composition of the soil (e) horizontal equivalent of the soil exaggeration
The cool-temperate woodland is characterized by (a) sparse undergrowth and broad-leaved deciduous trees (b) very sparse vegetation of xerophytic plants (c) wiry grass and shrubs (d) rolling grassland that are treeless (e) tree with leaves appearing brown throughout the year
Interdepence within the ecosystem can best be interpreted to mean that components of the ecosystem (a) prey on one another (b) harm one another (c) regulate one another (d) interact with one another (e) create one another
Which of the following is not a measure of environmental control? (a) preservation (b) Stabilization (c) Regradation (d) Afforestation (e) Conservation
The concept of environmental balance can be taken to mean that an alteration in one of the components of the ecosystem may likely result in the (a) minimization of the processes within the system (b) reversal of the processes within the system (c) acceleration of the processes within the system (d) stabilization of the processes within the system (e) stopping of the processes within the system
The rapid exhaustion of non-renewable natural resources may least be aided by one of the following. Which is it? (a) increased urbanization (b) reckless exploitation (c) inadequate technology (d) natural disaster (e) excessive demand
Through which of the following sea routes is crude oil from Nigeria transported to Europe? (a) North-Atlantic (b) Trans-pacific (c) Far-East (d) South-Atlantic (e) Trans-Indian
Which of the following continents has the largest population? (a) Africa (b) Asia (c) Europe (d)North America (e) South America
Which of the following is most hindered by line squalls, harmattan haze and rainy season clouds? (a) River transport (b) Road transport (c) Rail transport (d) Air transportation (e) Ocean Transport
All the following are major sources of air pollution except? (a) gas flaring (b) domestic cooking (c) aviation combustion (d) industrial furnaces (e) vehicle combustion
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between rural and urban centers? (a) Cities are not as important as rural areas (b) Rural areas are more productive than cities (c) Cities can exist without the rural not as important as rural areas. (d) Cities and rural areas depend of each other (e) Rural areas exist only to serve the cities
The only factor that least explains the pattern of population distribution in Nigeria is the (a) Arab slave raiding (b) stability of government of the old kingdoms (c) physical factor of rainfall (d) movement of people from one place to another (e) occurrence of earthquakes in certain areas.
Which of the following is the characteristic pattern or rural settlements in the eastern scarplands of Nigeria? (a) Satellite (b) Nucleated (c) Elongated (d) Dispersed (e) Linear
Which of the following statements is correct about the Sokoto plains? (a) It is not an area of inland drainage (b) It lies in the middle of the country and borders the Rivers Benue and Niger (c) It is a pear-shaped upland area (d) It consists of the basement complex rocks (e) It is dissected by rift valleys and plateaus
The following rivers take their sources from the highlands of Western Nigeria except (a) Shasha (b) Wase (c) Owena (d) Osse (e) Siluko
The region has volcanic plugs, inselbergs and a crater lake. Which of the following geographical regions is being described? (a) Eastern scarplands (b) Western uplands (c) North-central plateau (d) Eastern highlands (e) North-eastern highlands
All the following are important timber producing countries in Africa except (a) Nigeria (b) Ghana (c) Cote D’Ivorie (d) Mauritania (e) Zaire
The major problem facing the rearing of livestock in East Africa is the (a) competition for land with arable cultivators (b) torrential rainfall which destroys livestock feeds (c) poorly developed rail transportation network (d) inferior breed of cattle which produce only meat (e) inadequate veterinary services
All the following are problems facing the cultivation of fruits in the Mediterranean region of Africa except (a) long gestation period (b) frost action (c) inadequate water (d) re-stocking (e) inadequate processing methods
All the following can be made from the by-products of crude oil except (a) plastic (b) synthetic rubber (c) glass (d) detergents (e) insecticides
Which of the following countries in Africa has the greatest hydro-electric potential? (a) Nigeria (b) Zaire (c) Egypt (d) Cameroun (e) Zimbabwe
Which of the following is not among the objectives of ECOWAS? (a) promotion of unified budgetary system (b) promotion of cultural, social and political ties (c) Promotion of economic cooperation (d) Elimination of trade restrictions (e) Promotion of a unified currency system.

THEORY

This section is divided into Section A & B.

Answer Question 1 and any other 2..

SECTION A: PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

1. Study the map extract map on the scale 1:50, 000 showing an area in Nigeria.

Draw an outline of the area on a scale of 1: 150,000
In your outline mark and name the main road (i) shade one area below 100m

(ii) What is the length of the main road?

(iii) Describe the settlement pattern area on the map

Relate the relief with communication on the map.

2(a) Distinguish between: (i) Latitude and Longitude; (ii) Standard Time and Greenwich Mean Time

(b) If the Greenwich Mean Time is 10:00a.m 5^th July when the Local Time in a place X is 4.48a.m 4^th July, Find the longitude of place X.

3(a) Define the term sedimentary rock and describe any two processes of its formation

(b) Discuss any three ways in which sedimentary rocks are important to man.

4(a) Draw a labeled diagram of a simple soil profile

(b) Describe the characteristics of any two of the zones in the soil profile drawn in (a) above. Give reasons for each characteristic.

SECTION B: HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

Answer 3 questions.

1(a) Explain how each of the following has affected world population: (i) improved medical care (ii) advanced technology and industry.

(b) Highlight four factors which account for the high density of population in America.

2. Give reasons for the (a) low volume of trade between Nigeria and other countries of Africa; (b) high volume of trade between Nigeria and Britain.

3(a) On a sketch map of Nigeria, show and name one industrial zone in each of the following areas: (i) north of the Rivers Niger and Benue; (ii) east of the River Niger; (iii) west of the River Niger.

(b) Name one cottage industry and one manufacturing industry in any one of the zones shown on your map.

4(a) Explain any four factors which limit the rate of development in the southern coastlands of Nigeria.

(b) In what four ways can the development of the region be enhanced?

SS3 FURTHER MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: FURTHER MATHEMATICS TIME ALLOWED: 3HRS CLASS: S.S 3

OBJECTIVES

1. Which of the following sets is equivalent to (PUQ)∩(PUQ)? A. P B.P∩Q C. PUQ D.

2. Simplify: A. –Tan B. -cos C. tan D. cos.

3. Solve the inequality x² – 2x 3. A. -1 x 3 B. x 3 or -1 C. x 3 or x -1 D. -1 x 3

4. Given that sin x = –^√3/₂ and cos x > 0, find the value of x. A. 300⁰ B. 240⁰ C. 120⁰ D. 60⁰

6. Evaluate: log₁₀ (¹/₃ + ¹/₄) + 2 log₁₀2 + log₁₀(^3/₇). A. -3 B. 0 C. ⁵/₆ D. 1

7. Simplify: x³ⁿ⁺¹

X^2n+5/2 √x^2n-3 A. 0 B. ½ C. 1 D. 10

8. If (x + 1) is a factor of the polynomial x³ + px² + x + 6 = 0, Find the value of p. A. -8 B. -4 C. 4 D. 8

9. The Equation of a circle is 3x² + 3y² + 24x – 12y = 15, Find it radius. A. -8 B. -2 C. 2 D. 8

10. The polynomial is defined by f(x+1) = x³ + 3x² – 4x + 2,Find f (2). A. -8 B. -2 C. 2 D. 8

11. If the midpoint of the line joining (1-k, -4) and (2, k+1) is (-k, k), Find the value of k. A. -4 B. -3 C. -2 D. -1

12. Evaluate ∫³_-2 (3x²– 2x -12)dx A. -30 B. -18 C. -6 D. 6

13. If y =x³ – x²–x + 6, find the values of x at the turning points. A. ½, -3 B. 1/3, -1/2 C. 1, -1/3 d. 1, 1/3

14. Given that ⁿP_r = 90 and ⁿC_r = 15, find the value of r. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6

15. Which one of the following options is not a measure of central tendency? A. Mode B. Variance C. Mean D. Median

16. A fair die is tossed twice. Find the probability of obtaining a 3 and a 5. A. ⁵/₁₂ B.¹/₁₈

C. ²/₉ D. ¹/₃₆

17. Find the values of x at the point of intersection of the curve y = X² + 2x -3 and the line y +x=1. A. (1, -2) B. (0, 4) C. (2, -3) D. (1, -4)

18. Find the constant term in the binomial expression of (2x – 3/x)⁸. A. 90720 B. 1296 C. 1120 D. 672

19. Find the values of x at the turning points of the curve y =x³ – 2x²+ x + 1 A. 1 and ¹/₃ B. -1 and 3 C. 0 and ¹/₃ D. -1 and ¹/₃

20. If ƒ:x=1 +2x and g:x=-,where x R,and x ≠ -1,find g (f(2)) A. -5/3 B. -1/6 C. 1/6 D. 5/3

21. If r = 2i + j, m = 2i – j and n = -12i + 3j, find r + 2m + 1/2n A. 3/2j B. 1/2j C. 1/3j D. -1/2j

22. Find the limit of the function A. -6 B. -3 C. 3 D. 6

23. Evaluate log₄ 0.3 – log₄ 0.48 + log₄ 0.05 A. -8 B. -5/2 C. -2/5 D. -1/8.

24. In triangle PQR.PQ =3i – 4j and PR =- 2i – 7j. Find QR. A. -5i + 11j B. -5i + 3j C. -5i – 3j D. -5i – 11j

25. If V = 4 µr³ and S = 8 µr², find dv/ds. A. 1/4r B. 1/2r C. 2/3r D. 3/4r

26. If x = Y = and z = ^,find 2x – 3y +z A. B. C. D.

27. Simplify 8ⁿ× 2²ⁿ÷ 4³ⁿ. A. 2^-n B. 2^1-n C. 2ⁿD. 2ⁿ⁺¹

28. Simplify ( – 1)³ A. 6 – 9 B. 2 – 10 C. 2 – 9 D. 6 – 10

29. Given that the domain of f(x) = x²+ 1 is {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2}. A. {3, 0, -1} B. {5, 2, 1} C. {3, 1, 5} D. {2, 0, -1}

30. If = 3r² – 1 and A = 2 when r = 1, find A when r = 2. A. -10 B. -8 C. 8 D.10.

31. calculate the angle between a = -4i + 2j and b = I – 3j. A. 45⁰ B. 60⁰C. 135⁰D. 315⁰

32. The constant term in the expansion of (x-⁶ is A. -20 B. 15 C. 60 D 120

33. If f(x) = , x ≠ 1, find f ( – ) A. -22 B. -11 C. 11 D. 22

34. Express (14N, 240⁰) as a column vector. A. B. C. D.

35. If = 33, find the value of x. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6

36. What force will produce a velocity of 1.6ms^-1in 8s on a body of mass 0.4kg? A. 0.8N B. 0.06N C. 0.06N D. 0.8N E. 0.1N

37. Give that = + A. A = , B = B. A = , B = C. A = , B =2 D. A = , B =

38. A matrix is said to be singular if the determinant is. A. Negative B. One C. Positive D. Undefined

39. Evaluate log, 512 = 3. A. 2 B. 3 C. 8 D. 16

40. Find h^-1(-) if h (x) = , x ≠ 5 A. -20 B. C. D.

THEORY: Answer any ten question from this part.

1. Find the centre and radius of the circle. 3x²+ 3y² + 4x – 5y +2 = 0

2. if ^xC₃= , Find x

^xP₂

3. Write out the equation of the following ellipse in its canonical or standard form.

2x²+ 5y² + 8x – 10y 3 = 0

4. A binary operation is defined on the set R of real numbers by x y = 2x + 2y – 1

x,y €R. find the neutral element in R under the operation.

5. If U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} and A= {2, 5, 8} while B = {even numbers}, find (i) A ∩ B (ii) A U B (iii) A ∩ B¹ (iv) A¹∩ B

6. Vectors p, q and r are given by p = q = and r = Find (i) 4p – q + 5r (ii) Position vectors of p, q and r

7. A binary operation is defined on the set R, of real numbers by

x ^*y = x² where x, y €R

x + y (a)Evaluate (2 * 3) * 5 (b)if (x +1) * (x +2) = , Find the value of x

8. Using the binomial theorem, obtain the expansion of (1 + 3x)⁶+ (1 – 3x)⁶

9. Given that tan 2A= 2 tan A

1 – tan² A. Evaluate tan 15⁰, leaving your answers in surd form

10. (i) In a hotel, the breakfast menu is a choice between yam (Y) or plantain (P) or both. The following venn diagram shows the choices made by guests of the Hotel.

P Y

(2x + 1) x (x – 2)²

(a) Find the value of x.

(b) Number of guest who choose only one of yam and plantain.

11. (i) Prove that the equation of a parabola is given by y²

(ii) Write the equation of parabola in its canonical or standard form. Hence, y² – 6y – 2x + 19 = 0

12. The position vectors of two points x and y are x= -2i + 5j and y = i -7j

Find:

(i) 3x + 2y (ii) y – 2x

(iii) the angle between x and y

(iv) the unit vector in the direction of x + y

13. (a) A committee of 4 people is to be chosen from 5 married couple’s. find the number of ways the committee can be chosen if:

(i) everyone is equally eligible

(ii) the committee should include at least one woman.

(b) Find the number of ways of arranging N people in a straight line, if two particular people must always be separated.

SS3 MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS TIME ALLOWED: 3HRS CLASS: S.S 3

1. Evaluate (111_two)² – (101_two)² (a) 10_two (b) 100_two (c) 1100_two (d) 11000_two

2. Express the product of 0. 06 and 0. 09 in standard form. (a) 5.4 x 10^-3 (b) 5.4 x 10^-2 (c) 5.4 x 10^-1 (d) 5.4 x 10^-2

3. Find the 8^th term of the A. P. -3, -1 1 …………… (a) 13 (b) 11 (c) -8 (d) -11

Use the following for questions 4 to 6

A group of students took a test and the following frequency table shows the scores:

score	0	1	2	3	4	5
frequency	2	3	4	2	7	2

4. Find the mode (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 7

5. Find the mean score (a) 1.75 (b) 2 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.75 (e) 3

6. The median score is (a) 0 (b) 2.5 (c) 3 (d) 5 (e) 7

7. If cos 60⁰ = which of the following angles has a cosine of? (a) 30⁰ (b) 120⁰ (c) 150⁰ (d) 120⁰

8. Evaluate log₁₀6 + log₁₀45 – log₁₀27 without using logarithm tables (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1.1738 (d) 1.3802

9. What value of k makes the given expression a perfect square? M² – 8m + k. (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 (e) 64

10. What is the probability of throwing a number greater than 2 with a single fair die? (a) (b) 1 (c) (d) (e)

11. A fair die is rolled once. What is the probability of obtaining 4 or 6? A. B. C. D.

12. If x varies inversely as y varies directly as z. what is the relationship between x and z? (a) zz (b) x (c) xz² (d) x

13. Find the gradient of the line joining the points (2- 3) and (2,5) (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) undefined

14. If (x – a) is a factor of bx – ax + x² – ab, find the other factor. (a) (x + b) (b) (x – b) (c) (a + b) (d) (a – b)

15. The area of a sector of a circle with diameter 12cm is 66cm² if the sector is folded is to form a cone calculate the radius of the base of the cone [take = ] (a) 3.0cm (b) 3.5cm (c) 7.0cm (d) 7.5cm

16. A chord, 7cm long, is drawn in a circle with radius 3.7cm. calculate the distance of the chord from the center of the circle. (a) 0.7cm (b) 1.2cm (c) 2.0cm (d) 2.5cm

17. A right circular cone is such that its radius r is twice its height h. find its volume in terms of h. (a) ² (b) ³ (c) ² (d) ³

18. A man made a loss of 15% by selling an article for N 595. Find the cost price of the article. (a) N 600 (b) N 684. 25 (c) N 700. 00 (d) N 892. 50

19. The bearing of P from Q is x, where 270⁰ < x < 360⁰. Find the bearing of Q from P. (a) (x – 90)⁰ (b) (x – 270)⁰ (c) (x – 135)⁰ (d) (x – 180)⁰

20. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion? (a) range (b) mean deviation (c) mean (d) standard deviation

21. If log 5.957 = 0.7750, find log 3 0.0005957

(a) 4. 1986 (b) 2. 9250 (c) 1. 5917 (d) 1. 2853

22. In what modulus is it true that 9 + 8 = 5? (a) mod 10 (b) mod 11 (c) mod 12 (d) mod 13

23. If 20 (mod 9) is equivalent to y (mod 6), find y (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

24. The ratio of the exterior angle to the interior angle of a regular polygon is 1: 11. How many sides has the polygon? (a) 30 (b) 24 (c) 18 (d) 12.

25. P and Q are two places on the same circle of latitude 79⁰s. P is on longitude 68⁰, E, while Q is on longitude 22⁰W. the angular distance between P and Q is (a) 12⁰ (b) 45⁰ (c) 48⁰ (d) 90⁰

26. the angle of elevation of X from Y is 30⁰. If XY = 40m, how high is X above the level of Y? (a) 10m (b) 20m (c) 20 (d) 40m (e) 50m

27. Find y in the diagram below.

(a) 4. 01cm (b) 3. 87cm (c) 3. 78cm (d) 2. 87cm (e) 2. 78cm

28. A sector of a circle of radius 14cm subtends an angle of 135⁰ at the center of the circle. What is the perimeter of the sector? (Take) (a) 47cm (b) 51cm (c) 61cm (d) 88cm

29. The vertex angle of an isosceles triangle is 80⁰. If the base is 8cm long, what is the length of each of the equal sides? (a) 6.2cm (b) 8.0cm (c) 8.8cm (d) 9.0cm (e) 12.4cm

30. Calculate the mean deviation of the numbers 0, -1, -3, 4, 5, 1. (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) (d)

31. If x x = 1000, find x. (a) 10 (b) 10 10 (c) 10² (d) 10³

32. What is the value of if sin 2 = cos 52⁰? (a) 18⁰ (b) 19⁰ (c) 38⁰ (d) 64⁰ (e) 72⁰

33. If x + 2y = 1 and x – y = 2, find the value of x + y. (a) (b) 1 (c) -1 (d)

34. What value of k makes the expression y² – 6y + k a perfect square? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6 (e) 9

35. A rhombus has diagonals of lengths 24cm and 10cm. calculate the perimeter of the rhombus. (a) 13cm (b) 17cm (c) 26cm (d) 34cm (e) 52cm

36. A pyramid on a square base of side 10cm has a height of 15cm. find its volume (a) 150cm³ (b) 500cm³ (c) 1500cm³ (d) 5000³

37. Use the relation c = 5/9 (f – 32), to find f when c = 40 (a) 67 (b) 77 (c) 81 (d) 104

38. The nth term of a sequence is 2^{3n – 2} which term of the sequence is 2¹³? a. 6^th b. 5^th c. 4^th d. 3^rd

39. Solve the equation log₁₀ x – log₁₀ (2x – 38) = 1 (a) 0 (b) -1 (c) -2 (d) 1 (e) 2

40. The bearing of a point A from a point B is 042⁰. Calculate the bearing of B from A (a) 228⁰ (b) 222⁰ (c) 138⁰ (d) 48⁰ (e) 42₀

41. If the mean of the numbers 2, 3, 5, (6 – k), and (2 + 2k) is 4, find the value of k. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6

42. Which of the following is not a quadratic expression? (a) 3x² – 2x (b) x(x – 3) (c) x² – 5 (d) 5x (x – 2) (e) 5 (x – 1)

43. Calculate the sum to infinity of the series 12 + 6 + 3 + ….. (a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 24 (d) 30

44. Each exterior angle of a polygon is 30⁰. Calculate the sum of the interior angles. (a) 540⁰ (b) 720⁰ (c) 1080⁰ (d) 1800⁰

45. In what modulus is it true that 9 + 8 = 5? (a) mod 10 (b) mod 11 (c) mod 12 (d) mod 13

46. If x + 0. 4y = 3 and y = ½ x, find the value of (x + y). (a) 1 ¼ (b) 2 ½ (c) 3 ¾ (d) 5

47. A pyramid of volume 120cm² has a rectangular base which measures 5cm by 6cm. calculate the height of the pyramid (a) 5cm (b) 9cm (c) 12cm (d) 15cm

48. The square root of a number is 2k. What is half of the number? (a) Ök/2 (b) Ök (c) ½ k² (d) 2k²

49. What must be added to be expression x² – 18x to make it a perfect square? (a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 36 (d) 72 (e) 81

50. The areas of a parallelogram is 513cm² and the height is 19cm calculate the base? (a) 13. 5 cm (b) 25cm (c) 27cm (d) 54cm (e) 108cm

SS3 MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

THEORY SECTION A

INSTRUCTION: Answer all the five (5) question from this section

1(a). Without using table or calculator

Simplify: 0.25×3.3×4200

2.1×1.65×2 leaving your answer in standard form

(b). Solve for x if log₁₀ (3x+1) +log₁₀(2x-5) =0

2(a) Given U= (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8), x= {1,3,5,7} and Y={1,5,8} find: (i) x¹ÇY (ii) (x¹ÈY)¹

(b) The probabilities that kwakwe and sekyere will pass an examination are 2/3 and ¾ respectively. If both take the examination, find the probability that exactly one of them will pass.

3. The quantity y is partly constant and party varies inversely as the square of x.

(a) Write down relationship between x and y.

(b) When x=1, y=11 and when x=2, y=5, find the value of y when x=4

4. In a class of 45 students, 32 offered Physics (P), 28 offered Government (G) and 12 did not offer any of the two subjects.

(i) Draw the venn diagram to represent the information.

(ii) How many students offered both physics and government?

(iii) What is n(P U G)?

4(b). if P= 2u and q=1+u

1-u 1-u

Express p+q in terms of u.

5. Two fair dice tossed together once.

(a) Draw the sample space for the possible outcomes.

(b) Find the probability of getting a total: (i) of 7 or 8 (ii) Less than 4

MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3- edudelight.org

SECTION B

Answer any five (5) question only from this part.

All questions carry equal marks.

6a. Copy and complete the following table of values for the relation: y = x²-2x-2

X	-4	-3	-2	-1	0	1	2
Y				-3	-2

6b. using a scale of 2cm to 1 unit on both axes draw the graph of y= x² + 2x for -4 < x < 2

6c. use your graph to: (i) find the roots of the equation x² + 2x = 2

(ii) Indicate the region where x² + 2x < 0. 5

7a. if 3^x + 3^{x + 1}= 36 find x

7b. the bearing of p from x 10cm away is 025⁰. Another point Q is 6km from x and on a bearing of 162⁰. Calculate the: (i) distance PQ (ii) bearing of P from Q

8a. if 3, x, y, 18 are in arithmetic progression (A.P), find the value of x and y

b. (i) the sum of the second and third term of a geometric progression is six times the forth term. Find the two possible values of the common ratio

(ii) if the second term is 8 and the common ratio is positive, find the six terms

9a. if the mean of m, n, s, p and q is 12, calculate the mean of (m + 4), (n – 3), (s + 6), (p – 2) and (q + 8)

b. in a community of 500 people, the 75^th percentile age is 65 years while the 25^th percentile age is 15 years. How many of the people are between 15 and 65 years?

10a. when the numerator and denominator of a fraction are increased by 1 and 3 respectively the fraction is ½ the denominator of this fraction is 4 greater than its numerator. Find the fraction

b. find the value of 5(x – y) if 4x² – 9y² = 7 and 2x + 3y = 7

11a. lamina brought a book for N 300. 00 and sold it to bola at a profit of x% bola then sold the same book to James at a profit of x%. if James paid N (6x + ) more for the book than what lamin paid, find the value of x

b. find the range of values of x which satisfies the inequality 3x – 2 < 10 + x < 2 + 5x

12. If m = {x: 1 < x < 10} or = m {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} and A = {2, 5, 8} while (b) {even number}, find (i) a Ç b (ii) a È b (iii) a¹ Ç b¹ (iv) a Çb

SS3 PHYSICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

MOCK EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: PHYSICS TIME ALLOWED: 2 ½ HRS CLASS: S.S 3

OBJECTIVES

SECTION A: This section contains 50 questions each of options lettered A-D. Choose the correct option that best answer each question and shade correctly on the answer sheet.

In which of the following states of matter do molecules vibration about their mean position? (a) liquids only (b) solids only (c) liquids and gas only (d) solids, liquids and gases
Which of the following properties of a steel bar can be measured in terms of the dimension of length only? (a) weight (b) density (c) pressure (d) volume
In hydraulic press, a force of 40N is applied to the smaller piston of area 10cm². If the area of the larger piston is 200cm², calculate the force obtained (a) 800N (b) 500N (c) 80N (d) 50N
A body of volume 0.046m³ is immersed in a liquid of density 980kgm^-3 with ¾ of its volume submerged. Calculate the upthrust on the body (g=10ms^-2) (a) 11.27N (b) 33.81N (c) 112.70N (d) 338.10N
Which of the following types of motion will be produced when a pair of equal and opposite non-collinear parallel forces acts on a body (a) vibrational motion (b) random motion (c) translational motion (d) rotational motion
A body moving in a circle at constant speed has i. A velocity tangential of the circle ii. A constant kinetic energy iii. An acceleration directed towards the circumference of the circle. Which of the statement(s) above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I only (d) I, II and III
A car moves with a speed of 30m/s. Calculate the distance travelled in 30s (a) 30m (b) 60m (c) 450m (d) 900m
A moving body accelerates when it (a) changes its direction at constant speed (b) maintains constant linear speed (c)covers equal distances in equal times in a straight line (d) is acted upon by forces
The following properties of a solid are measured on earth: I. weight II. Specific heat capacity III. Density. Which of the properties will have different value if measured in space? (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II and III only
Which of the vector diagrams below represents the following position vectors , , ,

V₁ V₂ V₁ V₂

V₃ V₄ V₃ V₄

V₄ V₃ V₃ V₄

Two forces 6N and 8N act eastwards and northwards respectively on a body. Calculate the magnitude of their equilibrant (a) 2N (b) 7N (c) 10N (d) 14N
The period of simple pendulum of length 80.0cm was found to have doubled when he length of the pendulum was increased by X. Calculate X (a) 26.7cm (b) 40.0cm (c) 160.0cm (d) 240.0cm
A body of mass 10kg moving with a velocity of 30m/s due east is suddenly hit by another body and changes its velocity to 50m/s in the same direction. Calculate the magnitude of the impulse received (a) 100Ns (b) 150Ns (c) 250Ns (d) 400Ns
Electrical energy is measured in (a) Ampere (b) Coulomb (c) Kilowatt-hour (d) kilowatt
A stone of mass 0.5kg is dropped from a height of 12m. Calculate its maximum kinetic energy (a) 3.0J (b) 6.0J (c) 30.0J (d) 60.0J
A machine of efficiency 80% is used to lift a box. If the effort applied by the machine is twice the weight of the box, calculate the velocity ratio of the machine (a) 0.50 (b) 0.63 (c) 0.80 (d) 60.0
A faulty thermometer register 102.5⁰ at 100⁰C. If the thermometer has no zero error, what will it register at 55⁰C? (a) 54.6⁰ (b) 55.0⁰ (c) 56.4⁰ (d) 56.0⁰
A rod of initial length 2m at a temperature of 25⁰C is heated to 80⁰C. Calculate the increase in length of the rod if its linear expansivity is 4.0×10^-3K^-1 (a) 0.26m (b) 0.44m (c) 0.53m (d) 0.84m
As a bicycle tyre was being pumped up, it was noticed that contrary to Boyle’s law the volume increased as the pressure increased. The best explanation of this is that Boyle’s law is only true for (a) ideal gases (b) a fixed mass of gas (c) a mixture of gas (d) a gas at variable temperature
It takes 4 minutes to boil a quantity of water using an electrical coil. How long will it take to boil the same quantity of water using the same heating the current is doubled? (Neglect any external heat loss) (a) 8 minutes (b) 4 minutes (c) 2 minutes (d) 1 minute
When table salt is added to ice, the melting point of the ice (a) is raised (b) is lowered (c) remains unchanged (d) is first raised, then lowered
Which of the following factors affect the rate of evaporation of a liquid? I. Exposed surface area II. Temperature of the surroundings III. Thermal capacity of the liquid IV. Relative humidity of the surrounding (a) II and III only (b) II, III and IV only (c) I, III and IV only (d) I, II and IV only
Which of the following instruments is used to measure relative humidity? (a) hydrometer (b) barometer (c) hypsometer (d) hygrometer
The maximum displacement of a vibrating tuning fork is its (a) amplitude (b) frequency (c) period (d) wavelength
A boat is rocked by waves of speed 30m/s whose successive crests are 10m apart. Calculate the rate at which the boat receives the waves (a) 30s^-1 (b) 10^-1 (c) 3s^-1 (d) 1s^-1
Which of the following waves is not transverse? (a) light waves (b) sound waves (c) sea waves (d) radio waves
Light travelling through a small pin hole usually does not make shadow with a distinct sharp edge because of (a) diffraction (b) interference (c) reflection (d) refraction
The angle of incidence of a ray of light on a plane mirror is 55⁰. Determine the angle between the reflected ray and the mirror (a) 35⁰ (b) 45⁰ (c) 55⁰ (d) 110⁰
A concave mirror forms magnified and erect image only when the object is placed (a) at the centre of the curvature (b) at the focus (c) between the focus and the pole of the mirror (d) beyond the radius of curvature
A thin lens is placed 50cm from an illuminated object. The image produced has linear magnification of ¼. Calculate the power of the lens in diopters (a) 2.5D (b) 5.0D (c) 10.0D (d) 25.0D
Which of the following characteristics of light determine its colour? (a) velocity (b) wavelength (c) amplitude (d) intensity
Which of the following is not a part of electromagnetic spectrum? (a) X-rays (b) microwaves (c) infrared radiation (d) alpha rays
Sound interference is necessary to produce the phenomenon of (a) beats (b) Doppler effect (c) acoustic resonance (d) echo
A satellite in circular motion around the earth does not have (a) a gravitational force acting on it (b) a uniform velocity (c) an acceleration (d) a centripetal force acting on it
When a conductor mounted on an insulating stand is charged and left for some time, the conductor eventually loses all its charges. This is because the (a) electric charges evaporate from the charge surface of the conductor (b) are conducted to earth (c) charges on the conductors are neutralized by opposite charges from the surrounding air (d) charges ionize the surrounding air

Use the information below to answer questions 36 and 37

An isolated metal sphere of radius R, carrying an electric charge, Q is situated in a medium of relative permittivity; A test charge is placed at a point P, distance r from the surface of the sphere. Let represent the permittivity of free space

The electric potential at P is given by the relation (a) (b) (c) (d)
The magnitude of the electric field intensity at P is given by the expression (a) (b) (c) (d)
A resistor of resistance R is connected to a battery of negligible internal resistance. If a similar resistor is connected in series with it the (a) effective resistance of the circuit is halved (b) total power dissipated is doubled (c) total current in the circuit is halved (d) terminal voltage is halfed
A cell of e.m.f 1.5v is connected in series with a resistor of resistance 3.0Ω. A voltmeter connected across the cell registers 0.9V. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell (a) 2.0 (b) 3.0Ω (c) 5.0Ω (d) 6.0Ω
A wire of resistivity 4.40×10^-5 Ω cm has a cross sectional area of 7.50×10^-4 cm². Calculate the length of this wire that will be required to make a 4.0Ω resistor (a) 82.50 Ω (b) 68.18 Ω (c) 15.90 Ω (d) 11.94 Ω
A battery of emf 120V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω and 4.0 Ω series resistors. Calculate the terminal voltage of the battery (a) 13.0V (b) 11.0V (c) 3.0V (d) 1.0V
If the direction of the current in a straight wire is reversed, the magnetic field (a) remains the same (b) becomes parallel to the wire (c) ceases to exist (d) is oppositely directed
An ideal step-down transformer steps up (a) power (b) energy (c) current (d) voltage
An inductor of inductance 1.0H is connected in series with a capacitor of capacitance 2.0uF in an a.c. circuit. Calculate the value of frequency that will make the circuit to resonate (a) 112.5Hz (b) 225.0Hz (c) 353.5Hz (d) 707.21Hz
An ammeter connected to an a.c circuit recorded 5.5A. The peak current in the circuit is (a) 7.8A (b) 7.1A (c) 3.9A (d) 3.5A

The table below shows the energy levels of an atom. Use it to answer questions 46 and 47

Energy level (n)	1	2	3	4
Energy(eV)	-13.6	-3.39	-1.51	-0.85

(h=6.6×10^-34Js; e=1.6×10^-19C; c=3.0×10⁸ms^-1)

Calculate the first excitation energy of the atom (a) 1.60×10^-19J(b) 1.02×10^-18J (c) 1.60×10^-18J (d) 1.02×10^-19J
If the atom de-excites from n=2, wavelength of the emitted radiation is (a) 2.4 x10^-7m (b) 1.2 x10^-7m (c) 2.4 x10^-9m (d) 1.2 x10^-9m
Two isotopes of uranium are designated 238U and 235U. The numbers 238 and 235 represent their (a) atomic numbers (b) nucleon numbers (c) proton numbers (d) neutron numbers
The main difference between x-rays and gamma rays lies in their (a) ionizing ability (b) absorption rate (c) mode of production (d) mode of propagation
An electron of mass 9.1×10^-31kg moves with a speed of 10⁷ms^-1. Calculate the wavelength of the associated wave. (h=6.6×10^-34Js) (a) 9.10 x10^-24m (b) 4.55 x10^-17m (c) 7.25 x10^-11m (d) 6.20 x10^-8m

SECTION B

PART I

Answer any five questions from this section. All questions in this section carry equal mark (3 marks per question).

In the diagram illustrated, a body of mass m slides on an inclined plane. Show that the coefficient of friction between the surfaces in contact is tanɵ

R F

Fp Mg

A spiral spring with a metal extends by 10.5cm in air. When the metal is fully submerged in water, the spring extends by 6.8cm. Calculate the relative density of the metal. (Assume Hooke’s law is obeyed)

A ray of light is incident on an air-glass boundary at an angle ɵ. if the angle between the partially reflected ray and the refracted ray is 90⁰, calculate ɵ, given that the refractive index of glass is 1.50.

(a) Explain the term electrodes in electric cells.
An electric current passing through an electrolyte for 2 minutes deposited 200g of a substance. If the electrochemical equivalent of the substance is 8.33×10^-4 gC^-1, calculate the current passed.

Explain why sound waves cannot be plane polarized.

(a) Define surface tension

(b) State two methods by which the surface tension of a liquid can be reduced.

Explain why it is desirable to install an air conditioner near the ceiling of a room and not close to the floor.

(a) On what principle does lighting in a fluorescent tube operate?

(b) State two factors which determine the colour of light produced in a fluorescent tube.

Electron gun

The diagram above illustrates an arrangement of a cathode ray from an electron gun and a bar magnet placed perpendicularly to the direction of the ray. Will the ray bend downward or upward? Explain.

(a) Explain wave-particles duality of light

(b) Illustrate your answer in 10(a) with observable phenomena.

PART II

Answer any three questions from this section. All questions in this section carry equal mark (15 marks per question).

(a) state the principle of conservation of linear momentum

(b) Explain the mode of action of a propelled rocket.

(c) During a training session, two footballers pass a ball repeatedly between themselves. Give two reasons why the to and fro motion of the ball is not simple harmonic

(d) A ball is dropped from a height, at the same time as another ball is projected horizontally from the same height. (i) Would the balls hit the ground at the same time? (ii) Explain your answer in (i)

(e) A ball of mass 0.10kg is projected horizontally onto a vertical wall with a speed of 13 ms^-1. Calculate the: (i) change in momentum of the ball; (ii) average force exerted on the ball during its collision with the wall.

(a) (i) What is a machine? (ii) State two uses of gears (iii) Define the velocity ratio for a pair of gear wheels (iv) How can the mechanical advantage of a gear system be increased?

(b)

The diagram above illustrates the gears system of a bicycle. (i) Determine its velocity ration. (ii) If the bicycle has an efficiency 90%. Calculate the effort required to overcome a load of 70N (iii) Why is the calculated effort less than the actual effort required?

(a) Explain the term critical angle.

(b) List two factors which determine the deviation of a ray of light by a triangular glass prism.

(c) The angle of refraction (r) of a ray of white light from air through a triangular glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is 29.0⁰. Calculate the angle through which the ray is least deviated.

(d) Study the ray diagram below and use it to answer the question that follow.

60⁰

45^{0 20 )e}

^{p R}

^Q)60

B C

Calculate the: (i) values of angles P, Q and R (ii) refractive index n of the glass prism (iii) value of e (iv) total deviation D

(a) define magnetic line of force

(b) A wire of length 10cm carrying a current of 4.0 A is placed between the poles of a powerful electromagnet of magnetic flux density 2.0 T. calculate the (i) force on the wire when it is parallel to the field (ii) maximum force on the wire (iii) force on the wire when it makes an angle of 60⁰ with the field (c) Describe how keepers can be used to preserve the magnetic strength of permanent bar magnets.

(d) A sailor observes that his mariners’ compass reads N 10⁰ W at a place where the angle of declination is #15⁰ W. Calculate the true bearing of the place.

(a) (i) explain why x-rays can be used to produce photographs of fractures in bones. (ii) List four uses of x-rays other than in medicine

(b) State the energy transformations which takes place during the operation of an x-ray tube.

(c) (i) explain three named dangers to which human beings may be exposed when subjected to large doses of x-rays. (ii) State two precautions that must be taken by persons working with x-rays.

(d) In an x-ray tube, an electron is accelerated from rest towards a tungsten target biased at a potential of 33 KV. Calculate, for the electron, the (i) kinetic energy (ii) velocity.

{h = 6.6 x 10^-34 Js; Me = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg; c = 3.0 x 10^-8 ms-1; e = 1.6 x 10^-19 C}

MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3 – edudelight.org

SS3 ENGLISH LANGUAGE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

SS3 ECONOMICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

SS3 CRS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

THEORY MOCK EXAMINATION

SS3 COMMERCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

THEORY

SS3 CIVIC EDUCATION MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

THEORY: INSTRUCTION: ATTEMPT ONLY 6 QUESTIONS

SS3 CHEMISTRY MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

THEORY

SS3 BOOK KEEPING MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

SECTION B

SECTION C

SS3 BIOLOGY MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

THEORY ; Answer two question in Part I, number 4 is compulsory plus any other one.

SS3 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

SECTION B: ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION

SECTION C

SS3 LITERATURE IN ENGLISH MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org

PART II

SECTION B

THEORY

PAPER 3 THEORY

SS3 GOVERNMENT MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

THEORY

SECTION A.

SECTION B

SS3 FOOD AND NUTRITION MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

Theory

SS3 GEOGRAPHY MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

THEORY

SECTION A: PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

SECTION B: HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

SS3 FURTHER MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

THEORY: Answer any ten question from this part.

SS3 MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

THEORY SECTION A

SECTION B

SS3 PHYSICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org

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***SS3* ENGLISH LANGUAGE MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* ECONOMICS MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* CRS MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* COMMERCE MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* CIVIC EDUCATION MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* CHEMISTRY MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* BOOK KEEPING MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* BIOLOGY MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* LITERATURE IN ENGLISH MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS –edudelight.org***

***SS3* GOVERNMENT MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org***

***SS3* FOOD AND NUTRITION MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org***

***SS3* GEOGRAPHY MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS – edudelight.org***